Certification EMC de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen E20-814, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: E20-814
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

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NO.1 A company's administrator has implemented Symmetrix Access Control. The motherboard in
the
UNIX host with ADMIN privileges was replaced. After this change, the administrator was unable to
issue any Symmetrix Management commands.
What is the next step the administrator should take?
A. Regenerate the Unique ID
B. Reboot the UNIX host
C. Reset the Access Control database
D. Reinstall Solutions Enabler
Answer: A

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NO.2 SRDF/EDP is running in Adaptive Copy Disk mode from the source (R1) site to the secondary
(R21) site. Which SRDF mode is permitted between the R21 and the R2 sites?
A. Adaptive Copy Write Pending
B. Adaptive Copy Disk
C. Synchronous
D. Semi-synchronous
Answer: A

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NO.3 An Oracle ASM disk group consists of two 50 GB LUNs and is currently in use. The Oracle
database requires more storage space and has two 100 GB LUNs available.
What is the recommended way to organize ASM disk groups to make use of additional space?
A. Create a new disk group containing two 100 GB LUNs
B. Extend the current disk group to include the two 100 GB LUNs
C. Create two new disk groups containing one 100 GB LUN each
D. Double the disk group size by extending with one 100 GB LUN
Answer: A

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NO.4 A company has a vSphere environment consisting of eight ESXi hosts. Each host is running
EMC
PowerPath/VE and is connected to multiple FA ports on their Symmetrix. PowerPath/VE will not
claim the disk devices presented by their storage array even though the devices are seen by the
hosts.
What is the most likely solution?
A. Configure and register the PowerPath/VE license file
B. Check LUN masking on the array
C. Change the PowerPath/VE failover policy to Symopt
D. Uninstall and reinstall PowerPath/VE
Answer: A

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NO.5 A company uses VMware ESXi servers and EMC Symmetrix VMAX storage arrays. The storage
administrators use the VMware vSphere client on their Microsoft Windows desktops to manage
the environment. They would like to use the EMC Virtual Storage Integrator Path Management
plug-in.
Which path management activities will this plug-in allow?
A. Set multi-pathing policy for all Symmetrix devices
B. Set multi-pathing policy for individual Symmetrix devices
C. Change the multi-pathing ownership of all Symmetrix devices from NMP to PowerPath/VE
D. Change the multi-pathing ownership of individual Symmetrix devices from NMP to
PowerPath/VE
Answer: A

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NO.6 A company has activated a consistent clone replica of an Oracle database using hot backup
mode
on February 26th. The Oracle instance continues to run until March 6th. On March 7th, the
company realizes that an application problem occurred on February 28th.
What is the most recent point to which the database can be recovered?
A. February 26th
B. February 28th
C. March 6th
D. March 7th
Answer: B

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NO.7 Storage administrators for an EMC Symmetrix VMAX need to increase allocated storage for
Microsoft Exchange LUNs without interrupting its operation. Performing a virtual LUN migration
causes a critical nightly clone operation to run for hours instead of minutes. This impacts later
dependent jobs, preventing production operations from completing.
How can this impact to the nightly process be minimized?
A. Set a QoS value of 8 for MIR Copy Pace
B. Set a QoS value of 0 for MIR Copy Pace
C. Set SPC value of 1 on the Exchange LUNs
D. Set SPC value of 8 on the clone LUNs
Answer: A

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NO.8 All applications running on an EMC Symmetrix VMAX array are experiencing poor
performance.
The environment is characterized by:
Dissimilar workloads
Inefficient resource utilization
Service levels not being met
What can be done to guarantee service levels of business critical applications?
A. Implement dynamic cache partitioning
B. Balance throughput across ports
C. Re-map devices to evenly map the workload
D. Provision new storage for applications
Answer: A

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NO.9 A company is planning to migrate their Oracle database to EMC Symmetrix VMAX to support
decision support system applications. They would like design guidelines to overcome the existing
performance bottlenecks.
What is the key design guideline?
A. Redo logs and archive logs on separate spindles with RAID 5 protection
B. Redo logs and archive logs on the same spindles RAID 5 protection
C. Redo logs and archive logs on the same spindles with RAID 1 protection
D. Redo logs and archive logs on separate spindles with RAID 1 protection
Answer: D

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NO.10 A company uses EMC Symmetrix VMAX storage for their VMware vSphere environment. They
intend to use SRDF/S for disaster recovery.
What is a consideration when mounting datastores on the remote site after a failover?
A. Keep the existing signature on the replica datastore
B. Assign a new signature to the replica datastore
C. Replica datastore must be mounted as read only
D. Original datastore must be unmounted before the replica datastore can be mounted
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 312-50
Nom d'Examen: EC-COUNCIL (Ethical Hacker Certified)
Questions et réponses: 765 Q&As

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NO.1 According to the CEH methodology, what is the next step to be performed after
footprinting?
A. Enumeration
B. Scanning
C. System Hacking
D. Social Engineering
E. Expanding Influence
Answer: B

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NO.2 Who is an Ethical Hacker?
A. A person whohacksfor ethical reasons
B. A person whohacksfor an ethical cause
C. A person whohacksfor defensive purposes
D. A person whohacksfor offensive purposes
Answer: C

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NO.3 Where should a security tester be looking for information that could be used by an
attacker against an organization? (Select all that apply)
A. CHAT rooms
B. WHOIS database
C. News groups
D. Web sites
E. Search engines
F. Organization's own web site
Answer: A, B, C, D, E, F

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NO.4 What does the term "Ethical Hacking" mean?
A. Someone who is hacking for ethical reasons.
B. Someone who is using his/her skills for ethical reasons.
C. Someone who is using his/her skills for defensive purposes.
D. Someone who is using his/her skills for offensive purposes.
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL   312-50   certification 312-50   312-50   312-50

NO.5 A very useful resource for passively gathering information about a target company
is:
A. Host scanning
B. Whois search
C. Traceroute
D. Ping sweep
Answer: B

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NO.6 A Certkiller security System Administrator is reviewing the network system log files.
He notes the following:
- Network log files are at 5 MB at 12:00 noon.
-At 14:00 hours, the log files at 3 MB.
What should he assume has happened and what should he do about the situation?
A. He should contact the attacker's ISP as soon as possible and have the connection
disconnected.
B. He should log the event as suspicious activity, continue to investigate, and take further
steps according to site security policy.
C. He should log the file size, and archive the information, because the router crashed.
D. He should run a file system check, because the Syslog server has a self correcting file
system problem.
E. He should disconnect from the Internet discontinue any further unauthorized use,
because an attack has taken place.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You receive an email with the following message:
Hello Steve,
We are having technical difficulty in restoring user database record after the recent
blackout. Your account data is corrupted. Please logon to the SuperEmailServices.com
and change your password.
http://www.supermailservices.com@0xde.0xad.0xbe.0xef/support/logon.htm
If you do not reset your password within 7 days, your account will be permanently
disabled locking you out from our e-mail services.
Sincerely,
Technical Support
SuperEmailServices
From this e-mail you suspect that this message was sent by some hacker since you
have been using their e-mail services for the last 2 years and they have never sent
out an e-mail such as this. You also observe the URL in the message and confirm
your suspicion about 0xde.0xad.0xbde.0xef which looks like hexadecimal numbers.
You immediately enter the following at Windows 2000 command prompt:
Ping0xde.0xad.0xbe.0xef
You get a response with a valid IP address.
What is the obstructed IP address in the e-mail URL?
A. 222.173.190.239
B. 233.34.45.64
C. 54.23.56.55
D. 199.223.23.45
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following activities will NOT be considered as passive footprinting?
A. Go through the rubbish to find out any information that might have been discarded.
B. Search on financial site such as Yahoo Financial to identify assets.
C. Scan the range of IP address found in the target DNS database.
D. Perform multiples queries using a search engine.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which one of the following is defined as the process of distributing incorrect
Internet Protocol (IP) addresses/names with the intent of diverting traffic?
A. Network aliasing
B. Domain Name Server (DNS) poisoning
C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
D. Port scanning
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL   312-50   312-50

NO.10 What is "Hacktivism"?
A. Hacking for a cause
B. Hacking ruthlessly
C. An association which groups activists
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.11 User which Federal Statutes does FBI investigate for computer crimes involving
e-mail scams and mail fraud?
A. 18 U.S.C 1029 Possession of Access Devices
B. 18 U.S.C 1030 Fraud and related activity in connection with computers
C. 18 U.S.C 1343 Fraud by wire, radio or television
D. 18 U.S.C 1361 Injury to Government Property
E. 18 U.S.C 1362 Government communication systems
F. 18 U.S.C 1831 Economic Espionage Act
G. 18 U.S.C 1832 Trade Secrets Act
Answer: B

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NO.12 Your Certkiller trainee Sandra asks you which are the four existing Regional
Internet Registry (RIR's)?
A. APNIC, PICNIC, ARIN, LACNIC
B. RIPE NCC, LACNIC, ARIN, APNIC
C. RIPE NCC, NANIC, ARIN, APNIC
D. RIPE NCC, ARIN, APNIC, LATNIC
Answer: B

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NO.13 How does Traceroute map the route that a packet travels from point A to point B?
A. It uses a TCP Timestamp packet that will elicit a time exceed in transit message.
B. It uses a protocol that will be rejected at the gateways on its way to its destination.
C. It manipulates the value of time to live (TTL) parameter packet to elicit a time
exceeded in transit message.
D. It manipulated flags within packets to force gateways into generating error messages.
Answer: C

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NO.14 What are the two basic types of attacks?(Choose two.
A. DoS
B. Passive
C. Sniffing
D. Active
E. Cracking
Answer: B, D

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NO.15 Which of the following tools are used for footprinting?(Choose four.
A. Sam Spade
B. NSLookup
C. Traceroute
D. Neotrace
E. Cheops
Answer: A, B, C, D

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NO.16 To what does "message repudiation" refer to what concept in the realm of email
security?
A. Message repudiation means a user can validate which mail server or servers a message
was passed through.
B. Message repudiation means a user can claim damages for a mail message that
damaged their reputation.
C. Message repudiation means a recipient can be sure that a message was sent from a
particular person.
D. Message repudiation means a recipient can be sure that a message was sent from a
certain host.
E. Message repudiation means a sender can claim they did not actually send a particular
message.
Answer: E

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NO.17 You are footprinting an organization to gather competitive intelligence. You visit
the company's website for contact information and telephone numbers but do not
find it listed there. You know that they had the entire staff directory listed on their
website 12 months ago but not it is not there.
How would it be possible for you to retrieve information from the website that is
outdated?
A. Visit google's search engine and view the cached copy.
B. Visit Archive.org web site to retrieve the Internet archive of the company's website.
C. Crawl the entire website and store them into your computer.
D. Visit the company's partners and customers website for this information.
Answer: B

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NO.18 You are footprinting Acme.com to gather competitive intelligence. You visit the
acme.com websire for contact information and telephone number numbers but do
not find it listed there. You know that they had the entire staff directory listed on
their website 12 months ago but now it is not there. How would it be possible for you
to retrieve information from the website that is outdated?
A. Visit google search engine and view the cached copy.
B. Visit Archive.org site to retrieve the Internet archive of the acme website.
C. Crawl the entire website and store them into your computer.
D. Visit the company's partners and customers website for this information.
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL   312-50   312-50   312-50

NO.19 Snort has been used to capture packets on the network. On studying the packets, the
penetration tester finds it to be abnormal. If you were the penetration tester, why
would you find this abnormal?
(Note: The student is being tested on concept learnt during passive OS
fingerprinting, basic TCP/IP connection concepts and the ability to read packet
signatures from a sniff dumo.)
05/20-17:06:45.061034 192.160.13.4:31337 -> 172.16.1.101:1
TCP TTL:44 TOS:0x10 ID:242
***FRP** Seq: 0XA1D95 Ack: 0x53 Win: 0x400
...
05/20-17:06:58.685879 192.160.13.4:31337 ->
172.16.1.101:1024
TCP TTL:44 TOS:0x10 ID:242
***FRP** Seg: 0XA1D95 Ack: 0x53 Win: 0x400
What is odd about this attack? (Choose the most appropriate statement)
A. This is not a spoofed packet as the IP stack has increasing numbers for the three flags.
B. This is back orifice activity as the scan comes from port 31337.
C. The attacker wants to avoid creating a sub-carrier connection that is not normally
valid.
D. There packets were created by a tool; they were not created by a standard IP stack.
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL   certification 312-50   312-50

NO.20 What is the essential difference between an 'Ethical Hacker' and a 'Cracker'?
A. The ethical hacker does not use the same techniques or skills as a cracker.
B. The ethical hacker does it strictly for financial motives unlike a cracker.
C. The ethical hacker has authorization from the owner of the target.
D. The ethical hacker is just a cracker who is getting paid.
Answer: C

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HP0-S12 dernières questions d'examen certification HP et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S12
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP ProLiant ML/DL Servers)
Questions et réponses: 133 Q&As

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NO.1 Which script is sent securely by CPQLOCFG to iLO over the network?
A. RIBCL
B. RIBdos.vbs
C. HPONCFG
D. CPQLODOS
Answer: A

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NO.2 You need to estimate the run time for a UPS solution for some HP ProLiant servers. Which tool
accomplishes this task?
A. UPS Sizing Tool
B. Power Distribution Utility
C. Rack and Power Manager
D. UPS Enterprise Configurator
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement is correct regarding Transmit Load Balancing (TLB)?
A. TLB teaming has a maximum of four NICs in a team.
B. TLB requires an 802.3ad-capable switch to support TLB teaming.
C. NICs in TLB do not have Network Fault Tolerance (NFT) capability.
D. TLB can receive at 1000Mb/s (theoretical throughput) using four teamed Gigabit Ethernet NICs.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which type of memory protection calculates a 72-bit syndrome for every 64 bits of data?
A. Automatic Parity Checking (APC)
B. Error Checking and Correcting (ECC)
C. Error Detecting and Correction (EDC)
D. Battery Backed Write Cache (BBWC)
Answer: B

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NO.5 What are the preferred methods for multiserver deployment? (Select two.)
A. SmartStart
B. iLO Scripting
C. Rapid Deployment Pack
D. Insight Control Linux Edition
Answer: CD

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NO.6 A customer requires a Linux file server to be accessed by Windows and UNIX workstations. Which
services should be installed to support this requirement? (Select two.)
A. MD
B. NFS
C. NSS
D. SMB
E. CUPS
F. AutoFS
Answer: BD

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NO.7 You are required to provide a UPS solution for a ProLiant DL380 G5 Packaged Cluster with MSA1000.
All units are supplied with fully redundant power supplies (PSUs). The customer's goal is to provide
proper shutdown in the event of an extended power outage. Which guidelines are important as part of
your recommended minimum solution? (Select two.)
A. The UPS should have a minimum of 2 load segments.
B. The UPS should have a minimum of 3 load segments.
C. The UPS should have a minimum of 6 load segments.
D. Provide one UPS of VA rating based on the sizing requirements of the UPS Sizing Tool.
E. Provide one UPS of VA rating equal to at least 1.40 x the total maximum combined power requirements
(watts) of all units.
Answer: BD

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NO.8 You are asked to investigate a failing hard drive on a ProLiant DL380 G5. When you arrive at the rack,
you notice all the hard drive LEDs are flashing and the server UID light is flashing blue. What is
happening?
A. The array is rebuilding a redundant array using an RDP scripted task. The UID is blinking because
RDP is in control.
B. A disk has failed in a nonredundant array and all logical drives are lost. You must erase all logical drives
and rebuild the server.
C. Someone is accessing the unit using the iLO 2 remote console and is probably using the Array
Configuration Utility to check on the RAID configuration.
D. Someone has requested remote assistance from the HP SIM console and is using the storage agents
to run an identification SNMP task on all the disks in the array.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which default port number is used with the following link to open HP Systems Insight Manager?
https://<Server_IP_address>:
A. 23
B. 2301
C. 2381
D. 50000
Answer: D

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NO.10 From which HP resource can you access a set of tools, e-Services and solution sizers to help plan and
implement a suitable server solution for a customer?
A. HP Support Center
B. ActiveAnswers website
C. Solutions Programs Portal website
D. Channel Services Network website
E. Support and Troubleshooting website
Answer: B

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NO.11 A customer wants to connect an MSA30 DB storage solution to a ProLiant DL380 G5 server. Which
Smart Array controller is required to connect both MSA connectors?
A. Smart Array 6i
B. Smart Array 641
C. Smart Array 642
D. Smart Array 6402
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which resource gathers information for sizing, recommends tools, and helps to deploy a business
solution?
A. ActiveAnswers
B. Product Bulletin
C. Enterprise Configurator
D. Sales Builder for Windows
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which tasks can be performed on a group of iLO processors by an administrator using the HP
Lights-Out Configuration Utility? (Select two.)
A. Configure network settings.
B. Team the iLO ports for high availability.
C. Activate the ProLiant Essentials iLO Advanced Pack license keys.
D. Integrate iLO ports in one HP Instant Support Enterprise Edition (ISEE) group.
Answer: AC

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NO.14 Which features are added to Lights-Out 100i Advanced Pack compared to Lights-Out 100? (Select
three.)
A. control system power
B. embedded KVM over IP
C. boot to remote diskette drive
D. available as option expansion card
E. full remote graphical console capabilities
F. embedded Baseboard Management Controller (BMC)
Answer: BEF

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NO.15 Which server recovery functions are included with Automatic Server Recovery (ASR)? (Select three.)
A. automatic memory repair
B. recovery from a fan failure
C. automatic hard drive repair
D. recovery from a processor failure
E. recovery from a power supply failure
F. automatic restarting after an operating system failure
Answer: ADF

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NO.16 Which advanced memory protection technology avoids unplanned downtime due to a complete
memory chip failure?
A. Online Spare
B. Standard ECC
C. Advanced ECC
D. Mirrored Memory
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which products are ProLiant Essentials Value Pack options for configuration management? (Select
three.)
A. Automation Pack
B. Rapid Deployment Pack
C. Performance Management Pack
D. Integrated Lights-Out Advanced Pack
E. Remote Direct Memory Access Pack
Answer: BCD

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NO.18 Which management protocols can HP SIM use to automatically discover and identify HP servers,
desktops, clusters, workstations, and portables? (Select three.)
A. DMI
B. ICMP
C. IGMP
D. SMTP
E. SNMP
Answer: ABE

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NO.19 Which ports must be open when using the HP SIM defaults through a firewall? (Select three.)
A. 22 (SSH)
B. 23 (Telnet)
C. 8160 (Patrol)
D. 137 (NETBIOS)
E. 161 (SNMP Agent)
F. 5989 (HTTPS WMI Mapper)
Answer: AEF

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NO.20 What is a feature of SATA?
A. PIN efficiency is lower than ATA hard drives.
B. SATA host controllers recognize SCSI protocols.
C. SATA drives are daisy-chained during configuration.
D. It uses the same electrical and physical interfaces as Serial Attached SCSI.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M14
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Project and Portolio Management 7.1 Software)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 What are the different security layers that you can enforce in a request process? Select three.
A. license
B. field-level restrictions
C. participant permissions
D. access grant security group
E. workflow step permissions
Answer: BCE

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NO.2 What are the main configuration entities that make up a request process implementation? Select three.
A. request workflow
B. request template
C. request header type
D. request form
E. request type
Answer:ACE

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NO.3 Which standard portlets are available on a preconfigured portfolio management page? Select two.
A. asset list
B. current portfolio
C. project list
D. portfolio by business objective
Answer: BD

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NO.4 Which field attributes can be conditionally set using status dependency rules? Select four.
A. visible
B. editable
C. required
D. confirm
E. reconfirm
Answer: ABCE

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NO.5 Which time sheet statuses are displayed in the TMG-My Time Sheets portlet? Select four.
A. cancel
B. closed
C. approved
D. frozen
E. unsubmitted
Answer: BCDE

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NO.6 If a project manager wished to provide a set of dashboard pages to the project team whereby none of
the team members could change the data or modify any of the pages, which option would be best?
A. self-service module
B. shared module
C. personalize dashboard
D. publish dashboard
Answer: B

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NO.7 The below exhibit of request type intitled3 displays a set of fields in its fields tab. Where were these
fields acquired?
A. fields were added by selecting New at the bottom of the screen
B. fields were inherited from the default Request Header
C. fields were added by selecting the Field Group option
D. fields were added and inherited in Sub-Types tab
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the field entries that can be automated by a simple default rule is mandatory?
A. Workflow
B. Assigned To C. Assigned Group
D. None of the field entries are mandatory
Answer:A

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NO.9 What basic information is required to define a field? Select three.
A. token
B. validation
C. attributes
D. storage
E. field prompt
Answer:ABE

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NO.10 Which element of a table rule defines the logic for applying the automated entries in the results
column?
A. dependencies
B. results
C. PL/SQL D. SQL
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-144
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Secure WAN)
Questions et réponses: 111 Q&As

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NO.1 When you are configuring an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL), what is the purpose of
training mode?
A. ADSL is dependent upon line quality; ADSL devices must determine the best way to use the line.
B. ADSL devices always negotiate the signaling standard used, based on the type of DSLAM used by the
public carrier.
C. The ADSL device and the DSLAM must identify the fastest switched virtual circuit (SVC) available.
D. The training mode is essentially a testing phase to determine if the ADSL module itself is working
correctly.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Before the ProCurve Secure Router and the DSL Access Multiplexer (DSLAM) exchange
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) cells, they utilize physical-layer signaling to establish an Asymmetric
DSL (ADSL) connection. Which monitor evaluates the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) margin while the router
and the DSLAM establish the physical ADSL connection?
A. ADSL monitor
B. showtime monitor
C. phase 1 monitor
D. training monitor
Answer: D

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NO.3 What determines the number of Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) subinterfaces you configure for
an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) connection?
A. the number of LANs you want to connect to the Internet
B. the number of access control lists (ACLs) you want to apply to the ADSL interface
C. the amount of bandwidth you want to reserve for upstream and downstream transmissions
D. the number of virtual circuits you want to establish
Answer: D

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NO.4 How can you configure the ProCurve Secure Router so that a backup module does not establish a
backup connection with an unauthenticated peer?
A. Set the backup call mode so that the module cannot answer calls until the primary connection goes
down.
B. Configure PAP or CHAP on the backup interface.
C. Add an authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) list to the backup interface.
D. Add authenticated routers' hostnames to the global configuration mode database.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which type of firewall monitors traffic on several layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI)
model?
A. packet-filtering firewall
B. circuit-level gateway
C. application-level gateway
D. stateful-inspection firewall
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which interfaces can be configured as DHCP clients? Select TWO.
A. BRI interface
B. ADSL interface
C. ATM subinterface
D. Ethernet interface
E. Frame Relay interface
F. DSX-1 or G. 703 interface
Answer: CD

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NO.7 What must you do to configure Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) for an Asymmetric
Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)?
A. Configure and bind the ATM interface to the ADSL interface; then bind the ATM subinterface to a PPP
interface.
B. Configure a PPP interface; then bind the PPP interface to the ADSL interface.
C. Configure both an ATM interface and a PPP interface, and bind the ADSL interface to both virtual
interfaces.
D. Configure a PPPoE interface and bind it directly to the ADSL interface.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which feature does the ProCurve Secure Router 7203dl provide that the ProCurve Secure Router
7102dl does not?
A. built-in encryption module
B. support for redundant power source (RPS)
C. one additional Ethernet port
D. support for up to 6 ADSL lines
Answer: B

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
You want your ProCurve Secure Router to act as a gateway device for any remote VPN client who
initiates IKE in its most secure mode. Which policy shown contains the correct configurations for this
use?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which type of connection may be used for the backup modules on the ProCurve Secure Router?
A. Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)2+, Annex A or Annex B
B. T1 or E1 connections
C. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) connection
D. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) connection
Answer: C

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NO.11 The Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) keeps going into training mode. What is causing this
problem?
A. The signaling type configured for the router does not match the signaling type used by the service
provider.
B. The encapsulation type configured for the router does not match the type used by the service provider.
C. The signal-to-noise (SNR) margin configured for the router is too high.
D. The ADSL interface has not been assigned an IP address.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which tasks can you use CompactFlash to complete? Select TWO.
A. Configure routers at remote sites.
B. Increase RAM on the router by configuring virtual memory.
C. Enter bootstrap mode.
D. Back up configuration files.
E. Enable IPSec security.
F. Store and view the Secure Router OS in an uncompressed format.
Answer: AD

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NO.13 Which command allows you to use enable mode commands from any mode except basic mode?
A. the get command
B. the go command
C. the nomode command
D. the do command
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which steps must you complete to enable access to the ProCurve Secure Router's web interface?
Select TWO.
A. Enable the ftp server.
B. Enable the http server.
C. Configure a Telnet password.
D. Configure an enable mode password.
E. Configure a username and password.
F. Configure an ACL permitting FTP traffic.
Answer: BE

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NO.15 Which function does the virtual path identifier/virtual channel identifier (VPI/VCI) perform?
A. It identifies the endpoint for an Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) connection.
B. It identifies the tunnel endpoint for virtual private network (VPN) peers.
C. It identifies the permanent virtual circuit (PVC) in a Frame Relay network.
D. It defines each peer in a Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) connection, if authentication is configured.
Answer: A

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NO.16 How many access control lists (ACLs) can you apply directly to one interface?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. unlimited number
Answer: B

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NO.17 The status of the BRI interface is "connected." What does a connected status indicate?
A. The backup module is installed in the ProCurve Secure Router and is ready to be configured.
B. The BRI interface has been assigned to a primary connection.
C. The BRI interface is ready to provide a backup connection.
D. The BRI interface is currently providing a backup connection.
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is a disadvantage of dynamic routing?
A. Dynamic routing does not allow you to restrict which networks are included in routing tables.
B. Dynamic routing can consume bandwidth and CPU processes on the router.
C. Dynamic routing is less scalable than static routing.
D. Dynamic routing makes adding new networks to a WAN difficult.
Answer: B

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NO.19 You have configured an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) backup for your organization's
Frame Relay connection. When this connection goes down, which virtual interface could establish and
maintain the backup connection?
A. a backup Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) interface
B. a backup Frame Relay interface
C. a backup Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) interface
D. a backup BRI ISDN interface
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which Quality of Service (QoS) features does the ProCurve Secure Router support? Select TWO.
A. custom queuing
B. low latency queuing (LLQ)
C. weighted fair queuing (WFQ)
D. generic traffic shaping (GTS)
E. Frame Relay traffic shaping (FRTS)
Answer: BC

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Code d'Examen: HP0-790
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP ProCurve Routing Switch Essentials v5.21)
Questions et réponses: 57 Q&As

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NO.1 The global context in the running configuration of a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m includes
the spanning-tree single 802-1w command. However, each of the VLAN contexts includes the
spanning-tree command. How will the switch implement Spanning Tree?
A.The switch will implement the Spanning Tree version included in BPDUs it receives from neighbors.
B.The switch will implement a single instance of IEEE 802.1w.
C.The switch will not join a Spanning Tree because of the mismatch between configured versions.
D.The switch will implement per-VLAN IEEE 802.1D and ignore the global configuration command.
Correct:B

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NO.2 You must set 802.1w Bridge Priorities for a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m and a Switch 5300xl.
What is a difference between the Bridge Priority settings on these two models?
A.On the 9300m, the Bridge Priority is set at actual value. The 5300xl uses a multiplier.
B.The 9300m supports 4096 Bridge Priority values. The 5300xl supports 16.
C.On the 5300xl, 0 is the lowest Bridge Priority. On the 9300m, 0 is the normal priority.
D.The 5300xl supports a separate Bridge Priority for each STP instance. On the 9300m, a single priority
is applied to all STP instances.
Correct:A

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NO.3 What is the size of the address range specified in the following ACL entry? access-list 1 permit
192.168.192.0 0.0.1.255?
A.256 addresses
B.512 addresses
C.1,024 addresses
D.65,536 addresses
E.16,777,216 addresses
Correct:B

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NO.4 The administrator of a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m enters spanning-tree in the global
configuration context. Which Spanning Tree topology is enabled on the switch?
A.Single-instance Spanning Tree
B.Rapid Spanning Tree
C.Extended Spanning Tree
D.Per-VLAN Spanning Tree
Correct:D

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NO.5 A customer network includes a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m and several 5300xl switches. If
the 5300s are configured at default, which protocol must be enabled on the 9300m in order for all
the switches to participate in a single Spanning Tree domain?
A.IEEE 802.1X
B.IEEE 802.1Q
C.IEEE 802.1s
D.IEEE 802.1w
Correct:D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J15
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP StorageWorks MASE 2088 Delta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer wants to replicate data between two sites 200 km apart. Which HP SAN product would you
recommend?
A: MPX 100
B: MPX 110
C: MPR 100
D: MPR 110
Correct Answers: B

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NO.2 Which tool would you use to quickly survey a SAN environment?
A: HP SAN Surveyor
B: HP SAN Designer
C: HP CommandView
D: HP SAN Visibility Tool
Correct Answers: D

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NO.3 How can you improve iSCSI host performance in a SAN?
A: Upgrade to CommandView 7.
B: Use NICs with TOE (TCP/IP Offload Engine).
C: Enable NPIV (N_Port ID Virtualization) support.
D: Disable SLP (Service Location Protocol) Service Agent.
Correct Answers: B

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NO.4 What are benefits of logical fabrics? (Select three.)
A:port count reduction
B:easier administration
C:fabric service isolation
D:increased performance
E:fault propagation minimization
F:device sharing across logical fabrics
Correct Answers: C, E, F

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NO.5 Which SAN services are provided by the HP StorageWorks 400 Multi-Protocol Router (MPR)? (Select
two.)
A:ISL zoning
B:FCIP tunneling
C:IP-IP subnet routing
D:iSCSI-FC translation
E:FC-FC subnet routing
Correct Answers: B, E

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NO.6 A customer decides on HP c-Class BladeSystem as a corporate standard for servers. You must
implement SAN integration of the blades into a very large fabric. The customer is concerned about the
maximum switch count. Which interconnects will you recommend? (Select two.)
A:QLogic 4Gb Fabric Switch
B:Cisco MDS 9124e Fabric Switch
C:Emulex 4Gb Advanced SAN Switch
D:HP 4Gb Virtual Connect Fibre Channel Module
E:Brocade 4Gb SAN Switch in Access Gateway mode
Correct Answers: D, E

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NO.7 You are merging two fabrics and receive a fabric segmentation error that indicates the definition of a
zone object in one fabric is different from its definition in the other fabric. What can cause this error?
A: duplicate IDs
B: zone type mismatch
C: zone content mismatch
D: zone configuration mismatch
Correct Answers: C

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NO.8 Which password authentication service can be used on Brocade switches in addition to the local switch
database?
A: NIS
B: LDAP
C: RADIUS
D: Kerberos
Correct Answers: C

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NO.9 Where do you find the essential security elements in B-Series Fibre Channel switches running
firmware v5.3.x?
A: base Fabric OS
B: Secure Fabric OS
C: ISL Trunking manager
D: switch port web interface
Correct Answers: A

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NO.10 Brocade Secure Fabric OS is running on a fabric with four switches. If you are logged in to one of the
switches and change the Admin password, which switch or switches will have the password changed?
A: all the switches
B: LDAP-enabled switches only
C: only the switch you are logged in to
D: only switches connected to the Ethernet
Correct Answers: A

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NO.11 In B-Series virtual fabrics, which feature allows you to access devices in another virtual fabric?
A: Inter-VSAN Routing
B: Inter-Fabric Routing
C: Cross-VSAN Routing
D: Cross-Fabric Routing
Correct Answers: B

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NO.12 A customer is expanding a SAN to 400 switch ports, but has limited rack space. Which single Director
switch model is recommended?
A: Cisco MDS 9509 Director
B: Cisco MDS 9513 Director
C: HP StorageWorks 4/500 SAN Director
D: HP StorageWorks 4/256 SAN Director
Correct Answers: B

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NO.13 Under ideal operating conditions, what is the maximum supported, long-wave transceiver distance with
B or C-Series Switches and 4Gb SFPs?
A: 4km
B: 10km
C: 35km
D: 100km
Correct Answers: B

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NO.14 John, your customer, has a SAN built on B-Series switches. He calls you because he heard about a
new feature which allows him to distribute administrator responsibilities among his staff. After research,
what is your recommendation to John?
A: Upgrade to Secure Fabric OS version 5.2.
B: Purchase the Advanced Administration license.
C: Implement Distributed Administration through Fabric Manager.
D: Implement Admin Domains available since Fabric OS version 5.2.
Correct Answers: D

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NO.15 What is an advantage of iSCSI when compared to Fibre Channel?
A: less protocol overhead
B: no additional customer knowledge required
C: easily provisioned through HP Storage Essentials SRM
D: existing Ethernet infrastructure can be used to create a SAN
Correct Answers: D

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NO.16 Which SAN switch management tool, previously only available as an embedded version, is now
separately available on CD?
A: Emulex EZpilot
B: McData HAFM
C: Cisco Fabric Manager
D: Brocade Fabric Watch
Correct Answers: C

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NO.17 Which application can be used to set up network shares and provision iSCSI storage?
A: Brocade Fabric Manager
B: HP Data Protector Express
C: HP CommandView EVA 7.0
D: HP All-in-One Storage Manager
Correct Answers: D

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NO.18 How many drives can be held by the M6412 drive shelf?
A: 8
B: 12
C: 14
D: 16
Correct Answers: B

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NO.19 Which zoning enforcement types do Fibre Channel switches provide to protect against unauthorized
access? (Select two.)
A:access authorization
B:port-zoning authentication
C:RADIUS server authentication
D:directory access authorization
E:soft-plus zoning by login authentication
Correct Answers: A, E

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NO.20 Which tool helps you design a SAN that includes HP Blade servers?
A: SANsurfer
B: SAN Visibility
C: SAN Designer
D: Blade Designer
Correct Answers: C

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