2013年9月1日星期日

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Code d'Examen: 9L0-314
Nom d'Examen: Apple (Apple Hardware Recertification exam)
Questions et réponses: 124 Q&As

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NO.1 Why do you need to take precautions when disposing of CRT displays? SELECT TWO
A. CRT displays may contain toxic gases.
B. CRT displays may present a fire hazard.
C. CRT displays may implode if mishandled.
D. CRT displays may present a radiation hazard.
E. CRT displays may contain hazardous materials.
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 You are troubleshooting an eMac that has no image on its built-in display. You have already
checked user controls and reset PRAM, but the issue persists. When you connect an external
display to the eMac's VGA output port and restart the eMac, you see a proper image on the
external display. Which of the following service modules would most likely be the cause of these
symptoms?
A. Display Analog Assembly
B. Power Supply Assembly
C. Logic Board
D. Hard drive
Answer: A

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NO.3 The purpose of Apple's business conduct helpline is to _____.
A. ask technical support questions
B. report damaged service parts to Apple
C. report normal business operational details to Apple
D. raise a potential business conduct or ethics issue as it relates to Apple
Answer: D

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6. You are troubleshooting an iMac (Early 2008) that does not power on. You notice that all
diagnostic LEDs remain off when a known-good power cord is connected to the iMac and to a
known-good power outlet. What is most likely the cause of these symptoms?
A. Faulty power supply
B. Faulty optical drive
C. Faulty LCD panel
D. Faulty video card
Answer: A

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7. MacBook Air comes with a _____ MagSafe power adapter.
A. 45 Watt
B. 60 Watt
C. 65 Watt
D. 80 Watt
E. 85 Watt
Answer: A

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NO.4 What component of a Mac mini (Early 2009) logic board requires use of an anti-static foam
support to avoid damage?
A. EMI clips
B. Video card
C. Large heat sink
D. Battery connector
Answer: A

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NO.5 The liquid cooling system inside a Power Mac G5 (Quad Late 2005) has failed, causing a
coolant
leak while the computer is on. According to Apple references, what should you do FIRST?
A. Use a patch kit to re-seal the leak.
B. Unplug the computer immediately.
C. Drain and refill the liquid cooling system.
D. Put the computer to sleep until the liquid dries.
E. Let the computer run overnight to evaporate any spilled liquid.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 9L0-518
Nom d'Examen: Apple (OS X Server Essentials 10.8 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 76 Q&As

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NO.1 What advantage is gained by configuring the Contacts service in OS X Server to provide LDAP
searches?
A. It lets admins integrate Microsoft Exchange Server with the Contacts service.
B. It enables third-party contact management apps to be integrated with the Contacts service.
C. It eliminates the need for users to configure the Contacts app to perform LDAP searches.
D. It lets the Contacts service sync contact modifications to the LDAP server.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statement best describes the function of Gatekeeper?
A. To prevent users from opening untrusted applications.
B. To prevent users from downloading untrusted applications.
C. To prevent users from installing untrusted applications.
D. To prevent users from installing viruses and trojan horses.
Answer: A

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NO.3 If you use the Get Info window to change Sharing & Permissions settings on a file or folder,
Finder
preserves and can revert to the previous settings until the window is closed.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 When a user logs in, which task is NOT performed by the user's loginwindow or launchd
processes?
A. Launch items in /Library/LaunchDaemons.
B. Launch Dock and Finder.
C. Launch Login Items specified in Users & Groups preferences.
D. Configure input device and system settings according to System Preferences.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement best describes how Time Machine stores files from an OS X Mountain Lion
computer, when backing up to a directly-connected FireWire hard disk drive?
A. Each file is saved to the external hard disk once. File changes are stored in a database on the
external hard disk.
B. Each file is rewritten to the external hard disk during each backup.
C. Each file is saved to the external hard disk once. Files that do not change between backups are
represented by hard linksto save space.
D. Each file is saved to the external hard disk once. Files that do not change between backups are
represented by symbolic links tosave space.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement about Gatekeeper is TRUE?
A. Gatekeeper can ONLY be disabled using a configuration profile.
B. Standard users can bypass Gatekeeper.
C. Only the root user can disable Gatekeeper.
D. Only administrator users can bypass Gatekeeper.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the minimum amount of RAM required to install and run OS X Server on an OS X
Mountain Lion computer?
A. 2 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 6 GB
D. 8 GB
Answer: A

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NO.8 In OS X Mountain Lion, which TWO types of file service hosts can you browse in the Network
folder? (Select 2)
A. WebDAV
B. SMB
C. DFS
D. FTP
E. AFP
Answer: B,E

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NO.9 You want to secure the communication between the Calendar service in OS X Server and its
Calendar clients in OS X Mountain Lion. In Server app, which of these can you use to achieve
your goal?
A. A complex global password policy
B. An SSH tunnel
C. An SSL certificate and the HTTPS protocol
D. A Kerberos Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT)
Answer: C

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NO.10 Using Server app, you are configuring email alerts to be sent to an OS X Server system
administrator. Which TWO of these server events can you set to trigger an alert? (Select 2)
A. A user has exceeded his or her assigned disk quota for file sharing.
B. New software updates are available for the server.
C. An unsuccessful attempt was made to log in with the root account.
D. A certificate has expired or is about to expire.
E. The number of files on the server has exceeded a specified number.
Answer: A,B

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-101
Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Interior Routing Protocols and High Availability)
Questions et réponses: 177 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements apply to link state protocol behavior? Choose three answers.
A. Routers broadcast the entire route table to all neighbors.
B. Information about directly connected links is sent to all neighbors.
C. An adjacency database is maintained by each router.
D. The sequence number for an update is incremented as it is flooded from router to router.
E. The topological database is the same for all routers in a single area.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Click the exhibit button.
Routers R1 R2, and R3 are running a classful routing protocol between them. Assuming that router R1
advertises all directly connected networks, how will these networks be represented in router R3's routing
table?
A. Router R3's routing table can only contain one of the routes, which will result in route flapping.
B. Router R3's routing table will have one entry for 10.1.1.0/24 and one entry for 10.1.2.0/24.
C. The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/8 in router R3's routing table.
D. The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/24 in router R3's route table.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Click the exhibit button.
In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. How many
type 4 LSAs will be present in the network?
A. One.
B. One for each of the routers in area 0
C. One for each of the external routes exported by router R1.
D. Type 4 LSAs are not generated in this network topology.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following conditions will prevent an OSPF adjacency from reaching the full state? Choose
three answers.
A. MTU mismatch
B. Incorrect subnet mask
C. System interface not included in OSPF
D. Area ID not the same
E. Different metric set on each end of the link
F. Router ID not defined
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 Which of the following statements regarding distance vectors protocols are true.?
(Choose two answers).
A. RIPvl, RIPv2, and BGP are distance vector protocols.
B. OSPF and IS-IS are distance vector protocols.
C. Routing tables are exchanged between neighbors; however, no routing table is transmitted beyond the
immediate neighbor.
D. Distance vector protocols use the Dijkstra SPF algorithm.
E. Routers that participate in distance vector routing protocols maintain full knowledge of distant routers
and how they interconnect
Answer: A

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NO.6 Click the exhibit button.
In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. Assuming that
there are no stub networks, which of the following statements regarding type 4 LSA generation is true?
A. Router R1 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.
B. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.
C. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0 and 2.
D. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to area 0, and router R6 generates a type 4 LSA that
is flooded to area 2.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Click the exhibit button.
What is the command to configure a static route on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router R1 to reach the
network behind router R2?
A. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.2
B. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1
C. configure router static-route 138.120.199.2/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1
D. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 139.120.121.2
Answer: A

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NO.8 Click the exhibit button.
The following command sequence is executed on router R2:
A:R2# configure router ospf router-id 10.10.10.99
A:R2# configure router router-id 10.10.10.66
On router R1, what router ID appears for router R2 directly after these commands are executed?
A. 10.10.10.99
B. 10.10.10.66
C. 10.10.10.2
D. 10.10.10.1
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following statements describe the major features of OSPF? Choose two answers.
A. Fast reroute capability
B. Control traffic prioritization
C. Route redistribution
D. Traffic engineering extensions
E. Cut through forwarding
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 In an IP datagram, which of the following fields identifies the receiving application?
A. The protocol field of the transport layer header.
B. The port field of the transport layer header.
C. The protocol field of the network layer header.
D. The port field of the network layer address.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Click the exhibit button.
A static route is created on router R1 using the "static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.3.3.2"
command. What command can be used to test the static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. ping static 10.5.5.5
B. ping static 0.0.0.0/0
C. ping 10.5.5.5
D. ping 0.0.0.0
Answer: C

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NO.12 What causes an adjacency to change from down to two ways?
A. When a link state update is received in response to a link state request.
B. When a router receives a Hello packet that contains its own router ID in the neighbor list from a
neighbor.
C. When a router receives a database description packet from a neighbor.
D. When a link state acknowledgement is received in response to a link state update.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the default preference value for a static route in the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. 0
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
Answer: B

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-101   4A0-101

NO.14 What are the default Hello and Dead timer intervals for OSPF on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. 5 and 15 seconds
B. 10 and 30 seconds
C. 5 and 20 seconds
D. 10 and 40 seconds
Answer: D

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-101   4A0-101

NO.15 Which of the following commands can be used to display the number of SPF computations that have
been performed on a router?
A. show router ospf area <area-id>
B. show router ospf neighbor
C. show router ospf interface
D. show router ospf status
Answer: A

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NO.16 Click the exhibit button.
What can you deduce from the show command on router R6?
A. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment.
The DR for this segment would be the router with router ID 10.10.10.5.
B. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment;
however, this command does not indicate whether 10.10.10.3 or 10.10.10.5 is the DR or BDR.
C. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is the BDR, which is why it is not adjacent to the
other routers.
D. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment.
The DR for this segment would be the router with router ID 10.10.10.3.
Answer: B

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NO.17 There is an IP host with IP address 10.2.3.1. A static route is created, using the "configure router
static-route 10.2.3.0/24 next-hop 10.1.2.1" command. What is the correct traceroute command to test this
static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. traceroute 10.2.3.1
B. traceroute 10.2.3.1 next-hop 10.1.2.1
C. traceroute next-hop 10.1.2.1
D. traceroute does not work on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.
E. traceroute 10.1.2.1
Answer: A

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NO.18 Click the exhibit button.
What triggers convergence of the routing protocol when the link between switch 1 and switch 2 goes
down?
A. Convergence is triggered when the adjacency between routers R1 and R2 drops as a result of Hello
timeouts. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to
their adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.
B. Convergence is triggered when the physical interfaces between routers R1 and R2 go down. At this
point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their adjacent
routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.
C. Convergence will not be triggered because switches cannot run routing protocols between them.
D. Convergence is triggered when the switches notify the routers about the link state information. At this
point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their adjacent
routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged
E. Convergence is triggered when an LSA is sent from router R1 to router R2 to indicate that the link is
down. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link statedatabase and send updates to their
adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Static routing will be used in a network between a corporate head office, with many connected networks,
and a branch office, with one connection to the head office. Which of the following best describes the
likely configuration?
A. The corporate head office router will have a default route and the branch site will have a more specific
static route.
B. The corporate head office router and the branch office router will both have specific static routes.
C. The corporate head office router and the branch router will both have default routes.
D. The corporate head office router will have a more specific static route and the branch office router will
have a default route.
Answer: D

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NO.20 When a router receives an IP packet, but does not find a match in the routing table for the destination IP
address, what actions are performed by the router?
A. The packet is flooded out all router interfaces.
B. The packet is dropped and an ICMP unreachable message is sent back to the source.
C. The packet is silently discarded.
D. The packet is flooded out all interfaces and an ICMP unreachable message is sent.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 3I0-010
Nom d'Examen: ACI (ACI - Operations Certificate)
Questions et réponses: 342 Q&As

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NO.1 Your money market dealer has lent GBP 5,000,000.00 at 4 3/4% for 6 months (183 days). How much
must the counterparty pay back to you in capital plus accrued interest at maturity?
A. GBP 5,117,123.29
B. GBP 5,119,075.00
C. GBP 5,119,075.34
D. GBP 5,120,729.17
Answer: C

ACI   3I0-010   3I0-010   3I0-010

NO.2 What does "modified following business day convention" mean?
A. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the following business day, unless that day extends into
the next month, in which case it is dated the preceding business day
B. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the following business day
C. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the preceding business day
D. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the next business day that corresponds to the same
numerical day of the month as the preceding payment
Answer: A

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NO.3 Today is the fixing date for 6x9 FRA that you sold at 5.50% and for which the FRABBA LIBOR is now
6.00%. Which of the following is true?
A. You will pay a cash settlement to the counterparty
B. You will receive the cash settlement
C. There is no cash settlement pending
D. There is insufficient information to make a determination
Answer: A

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NO.4 When should discrepancies between front-office and back-office systems be resolved?
A. by the end of the trading day
B. on the next business day
C. on the value date
D. as soon as they become apparent
Answer: D

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NO.5 The maximum term for which a London Certificate of Deposit may be issued is:
A. 1 year
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 10 years
Answer: C

ACI   certification 3I0-010   certification 3I0-010   certification 3I0-010

NO.6 In FX swaps, the rate of the spot leg
A. may be freely chosen by the quoting party as long as both parties agree on it
B. must always be fixed immediately at the current mid rate, to reflect the rate at the time the deal was
made
C. should be fixed immediately within the current spread, to reflect current rates at the time the
transaction was made
D. should always be fixed off the current spread in order not to be mistaken for a spot FX transaction
Answer: C

ACI   3I0-010   3I0-010

NO.7 The control failings involving Barings and Daiwa highlight the critical importance of what operational risk
management practice?
A. the taping of conversations between counterparties
B. model signing-off and implementation controls
C. the separation between front/back office duties
D. the existence of contingency plans
Answer: C

ACI   3I0-010 examen   3I0-010 examen

NO.8 Under normal circumstances, which of the following is a non-negotiable instrument?
A. a Medium Term Note
B. a Bankers Acceptance
C. a Money Market Deposit
D. a Treasury Bill
Answer: C

ACI   certification 3I0-010   certification 3I0-010   3I0-010   3I0-010

NO.9 The prompt sending and checking of confirmations is considered a best practice when dealing in:
A. amounts higher than USD 10,000,000.00 or the equivalent in other currencies
B. amounts higher than USD 1,000,000.00 or the equivalent in other currencies
C. any amount unless dealt via a broker
D. any amount by any counterparty
Answer: D

ACI examen   3I0-010   certification 3I0-010   certification 3I0-010

NO.10 A collateral pool can be defined as:
A. assets lent by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to enable
them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
B. liabilities owned by members of a payments system collectively available to the system as collateral to
enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
C. assets owned by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to
enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
D. assets swapped by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to
enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
Answer: C

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NO.11 What type of documentation is recommended for repos in the international markets?
A. An Overseas Securities Lenders Agreement
B. A ISDA Master Repurchase Agreement
C. A SIFMA/ICMA Global Master Repurchase Agreement
D. An International Securities Lenders Agreement
Answer: C

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NO.12 You have two nostro accounts in USD, one account is long USD 5 million and the other is short USD 5
million. What action should be taken to reconcile the accounts?
A. No action is required. The credit interest earned on the credit balance will offset the debit interest
incurred on the short balance
B. You should borrow USD 5 million to cover the short balance and leave the long balance as it is
C. You should lend the surplus USD 5 million in order to overdraft charges on the short balance with the
interest earned on the loan
D. You should instruct the bank with the long balance to pay USD 5 million to the other bank
Answer: D

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NO.13 You have just opened a position in EUR/USD that you run overnight. What risk is present?
A. settlement, counterparty and equity risk
B. only counterparty risk
C. only currency and interest rate risks
D. settlement, counterparty and market risk
Answer: D

ACI examen   3I0-010   3I0-010   3I0-010

NO.14 The notional amount in an interest rate swap is:
A. the sum of all the fixed and floating rate payments
B. the net difference between fixed and floating rate payments
C. the principal amount on which floating and fixed interest payments is calculated
D. the amount at which the two counterparties can close-out their transaction
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is a feature of multilateral netting?
A. there are no more than two participants involved in the netting process
B. there is no redistribution of default risk
C. there is a central clearing house
D. no legal entity is required
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is a nostro bank account?
A. an account held with another bank
B. an account another bank holds with you
C. a trust account
D. a suspense account
Answer: A

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NO.17 Physical securities reconciliation software packages are based on:
A. SWIFT message type 5XX
B. SWIFT message type 2XX
C. SWIFT message type 320
D. SWIFT message type 400
Answer: A

ACI   3I0-010   3I0-010

NO.18 If the EUR/USD is quoted to you as 1.1050-53, what does this price represent?
A. EUR per USD
B. USD per EUR
C. the interest rate differential between EUR and USD
D. the fact that one USD is worth more than one EUR
Answer: B

ACI   3I0-010   3I0-010   3I0-010

NO.19 How many characters does a BIC have? (Under ISO standard 9362, 2nd edition)
A. 6 or 9 characters
B. 9 or 12 characters
C. 7 or 10 characters
D. 8 or 11 characters
Answer: D

ACI examen   3I0-010 examen   3I0-010   3I0-010 examen

NO.20 Which of the following is the main objective of position-keeping?
A. measuring market exposure
B. defining capital adequacy
C. evaluating country risk
D. monitoring counterparty credit risk
Answer: A

ACI   3I0-010   3I0-010

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Code d'Examen: ISTQB-Advanced-Lev1
Nom d'Examen: ASTQB (ISTQB Advanced Level Test manager Exam)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 You and two junior testers have been assigned to a new project qualification by your manager.
Development of the code started two weeks ago and now you are invited to attend a code review
meeting by development manager. Meeting agenda is to cover following items.
# Verify code compliance to coding standards
# Verify comment usage frequency
# Review number of function calls
# Review logical decision points in the application
What is the purpose of this meeting?
A. Perform a Static Analysis of the code with the intention of finding bugs early.
B. Explain the testers how the program should work.
C. Get an agreement to release the partially completed software to the testing department.
D. Explain the complexity of the code.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Software Testers in a software development company installed the new release on test
systems and started the testing phase.
Testers verified the new functionality, performed necessary security testing and completed planned
regression tests.
During the last week of testing, testers noticed that the memory utilization was more than 95% on
two of the test
servers (out of 4 servers). This behavior was not observed during the first weeks of the testing phase.
As a test analyst, what would you do?
A. Ignore the problem because other two servers are okay (memory utilization is normal)
B. Report the problem to the developer immediately and create a defect report because it could be
a problem related to memory leak.
C. Reboot the system so that memory utilization will come back to normal. Not report it as a
problem.
D. Create a defect report and reboot the system to correct the memory problem.
Answer: B

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NO.3 According to ISTQB syllabus, systems of systems;
I. Contain interconnected hardware, software applications and communications.
II. Include big bang merging of independent collaborating systems to avoid creating the
entire system from scratch.
III. Can be less reliable than individual systems
IV. Characteristics include; long duration of projects, version management and regression
tests at systems of systems level.
A. I, II and IV are true.
B. I, II are true and III is false.
C. I, III, and IV are true, II is false.
D. II,III and IV are true, I is false.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Select the correct statement related to test techniques;
I. Software program should be running to perform dynamic analysis
II. Software program should be running to perform static analysis
III. Control flow analysis is part of dynamic analysis
IV. Data flow analysis is part of static analysis
A. I, II true. III, IV false
B. I, III true. II, IV false
C. I, IV true. II, III false
D. I true. II, III, IV false
Answer: C

ASTQB   certification ISTQB-Advanced-Lev1   ISTQB-Advanced-Lev1 examen

NO.5 Which of the following statements are false?
I. Test execution starts when the system entry criteria are met (or waived) and test
execution ends when exit criteria are met.
II. System test environment creation might start during system design in V-model III.
Long term prospects needs to be considered when selecting test process or tools. IV.
Daily/weekly scrum meetings are part of agile testing method.
A. I and II and false.
B. II, III and IV are false
C. I, II, III are false
D. None of them are false
Answer: D

ASTQB   certification ISTQB-Advanced-Lev1   ISTQB-Advanced-Lev1   ISTQB-Advanced-Lev1   ISTQB-Advanced-Lev1 examen

NO.6 Integrated Solutions Inc. is a software testing company with 20 testers. One of their clients
provided a software release and requested to test the software within 2 weeks.
The client did not provide any specifications of the software or any documentation.
However, Integrated Solutions Inc. testers have tested similar releases from the same client in the
past. As a Senior Software Tester, what is your best approach?
A. Test the product using "Defect and Experienced Based" techniques like error guessing,
exploratory and attacks.
B. Request for more time.
C. Explain the client why you cannot test the software.
D. Test only performance of the software.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Select the correct statement;
A. Testing processes are interconnected and related to activities like requirements
engineering, software development, etc.
B. Testing tasks cannot be concurrent.
C. Requirements engineering and software testing are two isolated activities.
D. Testing activities / processes do not have to be aligned to the chosen software
development lifecycle model.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: CCB-400
Nom d'Examen: Cloudera (Cloudera Certified Specialist in Apache HBase)
Questions et réponses: 45 Q&As

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NO.1 The cells in a given row have versions that range from 1000 to 2000. You execute a delete
specifying the value 3000 for the version.
What is the outcome?
A. The delete fails with an error.
B. Only cells equal to the Specified version are deleted.
C. The entire row is deleted.
D. Nothing in the row is deleted.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Under default settings, which feature of HBase ensures that data won't be lost in the event of
a Region Server failure?
A. AllHBase activity is written to the WAL, which is stored in HDFS
B. All operations are logged on theHMaster.
C. HBase is ACID compliant, which guarantees that itis Durable.
D. Data is stored on the local filesystem of the RegionServer.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You have an average key-value pair size of 100 bytes.
Your primary access is random needs on the table.
Which of the following actions will speed up random reading performance on your cluster?
A. Turn off WAL on puts
B. Increase the number of versions kept
C. Decrease the block size
D. Increase the block size
Answer: D

Cloudera   CCB-400   CCB-400   certification CCB-400

NO.4 You have one primary HMaster and one standby. Your primary HMaster Falls fails and your
client application needs to make a metadata change.
Which of the following is the effect on your client application?
A. The client will queryZooKeepertofind the location of the new HMaster and complete the
metadata change.
B. The client will make the metadata change regardless of the slate of the HMaster.
C. The new HMaster will notify the client and complete the metadata change.
D. Theclientapplication will fail with a runtime error.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You have an "Employees" table in HBase. The Row Keys are the employees' IDs. You would like
to retrieve all employees who have an employee ID between 'user_100' and 'user_110'.
The shell command you would use to complete this is:
A. scan'Employees', {STARTROW =>'user_100', STOPROW =>'user_111'}
B. get'Employees', {STARTROW =>'user_100', STOPROW =>'user_110'}
C. scan'Employees', {STARTROW =>'user_100', SLIMIT => 10}
D. scan'Employees', {STARTROW =>'user_100', STOPROW =>'user_110'}
Answer: D

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2013年8月30日星期五

EXIN EX0-117, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: EX0-117
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (ITIL Foundation (syllabus 2011))
Questions et réponses: 217 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A. Allows higher volumes of successful change
B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their
customers successful
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that
involved significant cost and risk to the organization?
A. Change proposal
B. Change policy
C. Service request
D. Risk register
Answer: A

EXIN   EX0-117 examen   EX0-117 examen   EX0-117

NO.3 Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
D. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
Answer: B

EXIN examen   EX0-117   EX0-117 examen

NO.4 Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is oftenundocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Answer: A

EXIN   certification EX0-117   EX0-117

NO.5 At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be
defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Answer: A

EXIN   EX0-117 examen   EX0-117   certification EX0-117   EX0-117 examen

NO.6 Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure.?
A. Service level management
B. IT operations management
C. Capacity management
D. Incident management
Answer: B

EXIN   EX0-117   EX0-117 examen   EX0-117 examen

NO.7 Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
A. To identify patterns of business activity
B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services
D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management
B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management
Answer: C

EXIN examen   EX0-117   EX0-117   EX0-117 examen   EX0-117

NO.9 Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A. Process owner
B. Change manager
C. Service manager
D. Process practitioner
Answer: D

EXIN   EX0-117 examen   certification EX0-117

NO.10 The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps". What are these four
Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, plans
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, plans, partners
Answer: C

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