2013年8月30日星期五

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Code d'Examen: E20-597
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup and Recovery Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 177 Q&As

E20-597 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/E20-597.html

NO.1 You have an EMC NetWorker server with one storage node. There is an autoloader with four tape drives.
Two drives each are dedicated to the server and storage node. A new Celerra has been added to the
network with 500 GB of data. What must be done to back up the data on the Celerra?
A. Create a storage node on the Celerra and select NDMP in the "type of storage node" field.
B. Configure a device on the NetWorker server as an NDMP device and back up the Celerra to this
device.
C. Configure a client for the Celerra to use DSA and back up its data to either the NetWorker server or
storage node.
D. Create an NDMP backup pool and add this pool to a save group with other clients.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is a characteristic of how the EMC NetWorker modules integrate with native applications?
A. The developer of the native application provides a NetWorker module to allow for protection of their
application with NetWorker.
B. The NetWorker module runs on the NetWorker server and acts as an intermediary for data coming
from the NetWorker client module.
C. The NetWorker module acts as an intermediate layer between NetWorker and the native application.
D. The NetWorker module always takes the place of the standard NetWorker client allowing for backup of
applications and file systems.
Answer: C

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NO.3 When adding an EMC NetWorker server's name into the /nsr/res/servers file of a client, which service
must be restarted on the client for the change to take effect?
A. nsrd
B. nsrexecd
C. nsrindexd
D. nsrdb
Answer: B

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibit. An EMC NetWorker customer has two data zones, A and B, with autochanger AC1
and AC2, respectively, with four drives each. AC1 is configured as a dedicated autochanger and AC2 is
configured as a shared autochanger.
Two drives of AC2 are statically assigned. How many drives of AC2 can be shared in Zone A?
A. 2
B. 0
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the backup command specified in the EMC NetWorker client resource for EMC Centera
backups?
A.savepnpc
B.nsrdasv
C.nsrndmp_save
D.nsrsnap_vss_save.exe
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer using EMC NetWorker Power edition attempts to set server parallelism to 96. When saving
the changes they notice that the server parallelism reverts back to 64.
What action needs to be taken to set server parallelism to 96.?
A. Set device max sessions to 96.
B. Configure group parallelism to 96.
C. Enable diagnostic mode.
D. Add NetWorker Storage Node Enabler Code.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You have successfully configured three SQL servers for backup with the EMC NetWorker Module for
SQL. These servers are configured as follows:
Scheduled backup of the group shows that all SQL data from the three servers was successfully backed
up. However, when you attempt to recover the SQL data using the standard NetWorker user GUI, you
only see file system data to recover.
What must you do to recover the SQL data backed up with the NetWorker module?
A. Modify the browse time within the NetWorker user GUI to show the period for which you want to
recover.
B. Use the Microsoft SQL Server native tools to recover the data from NetWorker.
C. Modify the save set to include an instance or database name after MSSQL:.
D. Launch the NetWorker User for SQL.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is a characteristic of cloud volumes in EMC NetWorker?
A.Infinitely appendable
B.Recyclable
C.Space cannot be reclaimed.
D.Data cannot be compressed or encrypted.
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is a characteristic of EMC NetWorker SnapImage module backups?
A.Block-level backups of dense file systems
B.Fast block-level backups of a file system mounted on a proxy server
C.Immediate recovery of a file system from a persistent snapshot
D.SAN-based image-level backup and recovery of file systems
Answer: A

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NO.10 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to perform a complete backup of a SQL server with three
databases. Which save set name should be used?
A.MSSQL:DB
B.MSSQL:*
C.MSSQL:ALLDB
D.MSSQL:
Answer: D

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NO.11 A customer has the following EMC NetWorker configuration:
How many nsrlcpd processes are running on the NetWorker server?
A. 4
B. 12
C. 16
D. 0
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is a characteristic of VCB backups in EMC NetWorker?
A.Supports image and file-based backups
B.Requires a NetWorker client on each virtual machine
C.Requires a storage node on the VCB backup proxy
D.Does not support LAN-free backup
Answer: A

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NO.13 Refer to the exhibit. In an EMC NetWorker environment, the storage node sn1 is down for maintenance.
According to the client properties, what happens when the backup of the client starts?
A. The backup data will be sent to the storage node sn2.
B. The backup will fail as the storage node sn1 is not available.
C. The backup data will be sent to any available storage node.
D. The backup data will be sent to the NetWorker server.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which Microsoft VSS component is responsible for creation and maintenance of a shadow copy?
A. Requestor
B. Provider
C. Writer
D. Interceptor
Answer: B

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NO.15 A backup administrator is configuring an EMC NetWorker embedded storage node within an EMC Disk
Library. To ensure that the embedded storage node is used to read the data during clone operations, what
is required?
A.Add the Disk Library engine's hostname to the "Read hostname" field in the device properties.
B.Set the clone storage node value for the embedded storage node client resource to itself.
C.Create a client for the embedded storage node.
D.Create a clone pool and assign the appropriate rights to it.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-822
Nom d'Examen: EMC (CLARiiON Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

E20-822 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/E20-822.html

NO.1 A large financial customer has a time-critical OLTP application running on a dedicated CX3-80. One of
their internal administrators believes they modified something that could have affected the production
LUN. Since then the response time has increased significantly.
What action is the likely cause of the problem?
A.Decreased the high watermark to 75%
B.Enabled auto-assignment
C.Increased queue depth to 128
D.Increased the cache write aside value to 3076
Answer: C

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
A storage administrator is automating a solution using the Navisphere Secure CLI. In the event of
production data corruption, the script needs to recover from the target LUNs.
Which steps should the script perform?
P = Primary
S = Secondary
Snap = Snapshot
A.Unmount P, fracture, roll back Snap, synchronize, promote P, and mount P
B.Unmount P, promote S, fracture, roll back Snap, synchronize, promote P, and mount P
C.Unmount P, roll back Snap, promote S, fracture, synchronize, promote P, and mount P
D.Unmount P, roll back Snap, restore S, and mount P
Answer: B

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, what happened between 05:21 A.M. and 06:56 A.M.?
A.CLARiiON back-end port was disconnected
B.CLARiiON front-end port was disconnected
C.MirrorView connection failed
D.SAN Copy connection failed
Answer: C

EMC   E20-822   E20-822   E20-822   E20-822

NO.4 A customer has recently upgraded their CLARiiON to FLARE R26. What software and configuration
changes must the storage administrator ensure are in place to take advantage of the Asymmetric
Active/Active features of the software?
A.PowerPath 5.0; and change all initiators to use Failover mode 2
B.PowerPath 5.0; disable ArrayCommPath, and change all initiators to use Failover mode 4
C.PowerPath 5.1; and change all initiators to use Failover mode 4
D.PowerPath 5.1; disable Array CommPath, and change all host initiators to use Failover mode 3
Answer: C

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

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NO.6 A company has requested an independent consultant to develop and implement a security model for
the CLARiiON storage platform. The company has limited access to the administrator role by removing
rights for all accounts. However, they would like to keep the single administrator role account for top level
management.
Management of user security should not be done by the administrator role user. In addition, the storage
object administrators should not be able to change user security when using the Secure CLI. CLARiiON
storage systems are located in a protected data center with limited physical access.
Which method should be employed to manage user security?
A.Create a Security Administrator role user and create a Manager role user account for storage object
managers.
B.Create a Security Administrator role user, enable the CLI filter, and create a Manager role user account
for storage object managers.
C.Implement security using PKI certificates, create a Security Administrator role user, and enable the CLI
filter.
D.Implement security using PKI certificates, enable the CLI filter, and create a Manager role user account
for storage object managers.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A company has implemented Replication Manager to back up their SQL Server. In addition to clone
copies every 6 hours, they have also implemented SQL Server log backups for a more granular RPO.
Last night, a junior DBA corrupted the production database. After using Replication Manager to restore
the database with no recovery, the senior DBA attempts to replay the transaction log backups but the
database returns an error indicating that no database is in a state to replay logs.
What is the cause of this restore failure?
A.Replication Manager only supports transaction log replay on databases restored with full recovery
B.rmsqlrestore.exe was not used to replay the VDI metadata
C.The restored database's SCN is out of sync with the SQL system databases
D.The transaction log backups have a gap in the sequence of transactions
Answer: B

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
What is true of LUN 3?
A.Disk crossings are excessively high
B.Disk utilization is above the best practices threshold
C.The host data is misaligned
D.The number of stripe crossings indicates a large I/O size
Answer: C

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
A failure has occurred in a DR environment. The error message is displayed in the exhibit. What must be
done to correct the failure?
A.Add more LUNs to the remote CLARiiON RLP. Restart the synchronization.
B.Destroy the mirror. Add a secondary of the correct size.
C.Enable write cache on the remote CLARiiON Write Intent Logs. Restart the synchronization.
D.Increase the write cache size on the remote CLARiiON.
Answer: A

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NO.11 A customer has a single RAID group with a RAID 1/0 6+6 LUN on a dedicated DAE2. This LUN is
active on SP A. They need to expand with the maximum possible increase in IOPS. The LUN may not go
offline. The customer has a new DAE2 with the same disks.
How should they proceed?
A.Add 12 disks to the current RAID group. Create a new LUN. Create a striped metaLUN.
B.Back up the current LUN. Create a new RAID group and a new LUN on SP B. Present it to the host and
create a LVM plaid. Restore the data.
C.Create a new RAID group and create a new LUN on SP A. Create a concatenated metaLUN.
D.Create a new RAID group and create a new LUN on SP A. Create a striped metaLUN.
Answer: D

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NO.12 A customer is currently using Replication Manager to create clone copies of their SQL Server instance
which are then mounted to a backup server and streamed to tape. The customer has decided to purchase
a second CLARiiON and implement a DR scenario. The DR site is located 30 km away. A dedicated T1
(1.5 Mb) line is leased specifically for DR purposes with measured latencies that average 5-10 ms.
The application is considered mission-critical and as such very little data loss is acceptable. Any solution
implemented must have very little impact on performance. Time will be allowed for the application to be
recovered in the case of a disaster. The implemented solution must also allow for transaction logs to be
replayed in the case of data corruption.
Which DR solution would best fit this scenario?
A.MirrorView/A
B.RepliStor SQL Server Module
C.SQL Log Shipping/Full SAN Copy from the production LUN
D.SQL Log Shipping/Incremental SAN Copy from the production LUN
Answer: C

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NO.13 A customer uses Incremental SAN Copy (ISC) as part of a DR solution. They have configured the
Reserved LUN Pool (RLP). They are adapting their environment to support different failure scenarios.
Which combination of failures is most serious?
A.A failure of the ISC update followed by a failure of the production LUN
B.A failure of the ISC update followed by a failure of the remote LUN
C.A failure of the link followed by a failure of the remote RLP
D.A failure of the RLP on the remote CLARiiON followed by a failure of the remote LUN
Answer: A

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer uses multiple server preparation scripts; one for new Exchange servers and one for recovery.
These scripts are used to configure the CLARiiON storage using the Navisphere Secure CLI. The
customer calls and reports that they accidentally ran the new server preparation script instead of the
recovery script they intended to run.
The customer asks for a check to see if their data is still available from CLARiiON storage as they cannot
find their LUNs. The CLARiiON SP event logs show the data in the exhibit. Which method can the
customer use to correct the problem?
A.Rebind base and component LUNs, reform the metaLUN, place the metaLUN in SG for the host, and
recover the data from the backup.
B.Reform the metaLUN from the original base and component LUNs, place the metaLUN in SG for the
host, and recover the data from the backup.
C.Use CLARiiON recovery tools to recover the metaLUN, place the metaLUN in SG for the host, and
recover the data from the backup.
D.Use Navisphere Secure CLI tools to recover base and component LUNs, reform the metaLUN, and
place the metaLUN in SG for the host.
Answer: A

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NO.15 A customer is implementing the Replication Manager/SAN Copy/RepliStor solution for DR of their
Exchange environment. In the process of configuring this solution they need to configure the RM DR
utility to run after the completion of the SAN Copy job.
Which level of IR callout should they use in order for the script to invoke at the proper time?
A.100
B.300
C.400
D.600
Answer: D

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NO.16 A customer created two RAID groups, 0 and 2, with the default settings on their CX3-80 and bound
four LUNs in each group. After starting the application the customer notices all I/O is going through SP B.
What caused the LUN imbalance?
A.CX3-80 has a single SP
B.Default setting bound all LUNs on the same SP
C.Host does not have failover software installed
D.Host is not ALUA-aware
Answer: B

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer wants to create an additional 250 GB LUN on their existing RAID 6 group. How can this be
accomplished?
A.Create the LUN on another RAID 6 group using concatenation
B.Defragment the RAID group and bind the additional LUN
C.Destroy the RAID group and create the new LUNs
D.Expand the RAID group to increase the available space
Answer: A

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

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NO.19 A customer has been tasked with copying 50 LUNs between two CLARiiONs using SAN Copy. The
customer starts the sessions selecting all defaults. The resulting copies appear to be taking an
unexpectedly long time.
Which settings should be increased to improve performance?
A.Reserved LUN Pool Size, Concurrent sessions
B.Throttle Value, Concurrent sessions
C.Throttle Value, Reserved LUN Pool Size
D.Write cache, Reserved LUN Pool
Answer: B

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NO.20 A customer is reporting a problem with a physical disk. Examining the SP Event Log shows errors for
LUN 16. Data is being gathered from a UNIX host used for storage management. The host does not have
the capability to run the Navisphere Web UI.
To determine the underlying disk structure, which Navisphere Secure CLI subcommand can be used to
determine if LUN 16 is being affected?
A.getdisk
B.getinfo
C.getlun
D.getrg
Answer: C

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NO.21 A customer created two RAID groups, 0 and 2, with the default settings on their CX3-80 and bound
four LUNs in each group. After starting the application the customer notices all I/O is going through SP B.
What caused the LUN imbalance?
A.CX3-80 has a single SP
B.Default setting bound all LUNs on the same SP
C.Host does not have failover software installed
D.Host is not ALUA-aware
Answer: B

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NO.22 A customer has configured SnapView for two LUNs on a DR CLARiiON storage system. When the
client attempts to run the Navisphere Secure CLI command to create the snapshot session, it fails.
In the setup process for using SnapView, which step did the customer forget to do?
A.Allocate LUNs to the Reserved LUN Pool
B.Allocate Write Intent Log
C.Enable Incremental Synchronization
D.Test IP link latency
Answer: A

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NO.23 Click the Exhibit button.
While performing a routine check of a CX3-40 with FLARE R26 the storage administrator receives an
error while trying to clear the logs. What is the cause of the error?
A.Host agent is not running
B.The Privileged User List is empty
C.The user is logged in as a security administrator role
D.The user is logged in with a manager role
Answer: D

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NO.24 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer wants to create an additional 250 GB LUN on their existing RAID 6 group. How can this be
accomplished?
A.Create the LUN on another RAID 6 group using concatenation
B.Defragment the RAID group and bind the additional LUN
C.Destroy the RAID group and create the new LUNs
D.Expand the RAID group to increase the available space
Answer: A

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NO.25 A new CLARiiON arrives at a customer's site and an EMC Customer Engineer performs the physical
installation. The storage administrator is under a lot of pressure to have the array online and in production
by the end of the week. The storage administrator selects several Windows and Solaris servers for the
initial production rollout. The storage requirements have been agreed upon and the storage administrator
creates 30 LUNs of various sizes based upon EMC best practices.
The administrator works with the server team to install HBAs, update settings, install EMC software, and
then perform the necessary cabling and zoning requirements. After the hosts successfully register with
the CLARiiON array, the Windows and Solaris administrators state each server has 30 LUNs allocated.
What does the storage administrator need to accomplish to ensure each server has access to the
appropriate LUNs?
A.Create the appropriate storage groups
B.Disable Access Logix
C.Enable Access Logix
D.Fix the incorrect zones
Answer: C

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NO.26 A large warehousing company has two CLARiiONs with two LUNs set up and each is mirrored with
MirrorView/A over DWDM. The two sites are less than 1 km away.
The company is currently running an OLTP database on a 300 GB RAID 1/0 4+4 LUN and its logging on a
150 GB RAID 1/0 4+4 LUN. The I/O read/write ratio is 2:1 with a 2 kB average I/O size.
The customer notices that at peak times the latency becomes an issue as their users start to complain
about poor performance. What is your recommendation?
A.Check the fibre for faults
B.Upgrade the CLARiiON model
C.Use Incremental SAN Copy
D.Use MirrorView/S
Answer: D

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NO.27 A new CLARiiON arrives at a customer's site and an EMC Customer Engineer performs the physical
installation. The storage administrator is under a lot of pressure to have the array online and in production
by the end of the week. The storage administrator selects several Windows and Solaris servers for the
initial production rollout. The storage requirements have been agreed upon and the storage administrator
creates 30 LUNs of various sizes based upon EMC best practices.
The administrator works with the server team to install HBAs, update settings, install EMC software, and
then perform the necessary cabling and zoning requirements. After the hosts successfully register with
the CLARiiON array, the Windows and Solaris administrators state each server has 30 LUNs allocated.
What does the storage administrator need to accomplish to ensure each server has access to the
appropriate LUNs?
A.Create the appropriate storage groups
B.Disable Access Logix
C.Enable Access Logix
D.Fix the incorrect zones
Answer: C

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NO.28 You are using Replication Manager to make clones of two production Exchange mailbox database
LUNs. After reviewing the event log for the week, you notice there have been numerous failures but no
alerts have been sent out. Replication Manager was configured to send email alerts in case of an
Exchange job failure.
What is preventing the email alerts from being sent out?
A.MAPI32.DLL is missing on the Replication Manager server
B.Outlook was not installed on the Replication Manager server
C.The Replication Manager console was not configured to relay alerts
D.The SMTP service in IIS was not configured on the Replication Manager server
Answer: D

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NO.29 Click the Exhibit button.
You are the SAN Administrator at a company. The company is running multiple Exchange Server 2007
storage groups on a CLARiiON array that exclusively uses 15k rpm 146 GB drives. You have been tasked
with adding a third Exchange storage group with one mailbox store to the existing server.
The storage for this new Exchange storage group must be allocated from the same CLARiiON currently
running the other two Exchange storage groups. All Exchange storage groups are presently exhibiting a
1:1 read/write ratio. The new storage group will require capacity identical to the existing Exchange
storage groups.
The table below, as well as the exhibit, indicates the current utilization of the array.w`V6a2tYJ%&,*In
order to satisfy the capacity requirements (GB and IOPS), in which RAID group must you create a
database LUN for the new Exchange storage group?
A.0
B.10
C.20
D.30b
Answer: C

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NO.30 A customer was running a snapshot session when they noticed a SP failure. The Source LUN was
owned by the failed SP. What will happen to the session and the Reserved LUN Pool (RLP) LUN?
A.Session continues and the RLP LUNs trespass. After repairing the failed SP, the RLP LUN must be
manually trespassed to the original owning SP.
B.Session continues and the RLP LUNs trespass. After repairing the failed SP, the RLP LUN trespasses
back to the original owning SP.
C.Session gets deactivated and the SP frees the allocated LUN. After fixing the failed SP, the session will
activate and the original RLP LUN will be allocated.
D.Session stops and a new RLP LUN will be allocated on the surviving SP upon fixing the failed SP. The
RLP LUN will trespass back to the original SP and the user must manually restart the session.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-538
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Network Attached Storage (NAS) Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 Which conditions must be met before tree quotas can be enabled?
A. File system and parent directories must exist, but the parent directory on which the tree quota is to be
applied must already exist.
B. File system and parent directories must exist, but the parent directory on which the tree quota is to be
applied must not exist.
C. Tree directory structure to be quoted must be populated with data.
D. Tree directory structure to be quoted must be at the root of the file system.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A site administrator would like to have file system quota implemented. However, the administrator is
worried about users who create symbolic links.
How can symbolic links be excluded from the file system quota?
A. Use group and user quotas together
B. Use the filesize policy
C. Use the block policy
D. Use the excl option when configuring the quota
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are asked by management to create a project directory and track the individual user consumption
in this directory using Celerra quota features. No limits should be enforced.
What would be part of an appropriate procedure to satisfy this requirement?
A. Set up a user quota on the share; specify the limits with the keyword "none" in the CLI
B. Set up a tree quota on the new directory; set up a user quota on the quota tree; specify the limits for the
tree quota and user quota with a value of zero in the GUI
C. Set up a tree quota on the new directory; leave the two fields specifying the limits for the quota tree and
the user quota blank in the Unisphere GUI
D. Set up a user quota on the file system (accommodating the new directory); specify the limits with the
keyword "none" in the GUI
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement describes the public network connection of a Celerra with a single Control Station?
A. Comprised of a single physical Ethernet connection
B. Is formed from dual redundant physical Ethernet connections
C. Comprised of a virtual Ethernet EtherChannel connection
D. Is formed from a virtual Ethernet LACP connection
Answer: A

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NO.5 Management asks you to set quota limits on a directory tree.
They want the default set to 500 MB with a possible overhead of 20%. They want to enforce these limits
on the sum of the logical size of objects in that quota tree. What is part of the correct answer?
A. Set the hard limit to 600 MB, and set the file size quota policy on the Data Mover.
B. Set the hard limit to 600 MB, and set the file size quota policy on the file system.
C. Set the hard limit to 500 MB, and set the file size quota policy on the file system.
D. Set the hard limit to 500 MB, and set the blocksize quota policy.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are creating an auto-extend file system. What would happen if you leave the Maximum Capacity
option empty?
A. File system would grow to the pool capacity limit.
B. Data would be overwritten.
C. File system would fail to auto-extend.
D. Write I/Os would be saved in cache until more space is added.
Answer: A

EMC   E20-538   E20-538

NO.7 You enter the following command: nas_fs -create size=3M pool=clar_r5_economy
What will be the result?
A. The file system is created with a default file system name.
B. The file system and a mountpoint are created.
C. Only the mountpoint is created.
D. The file system is not created.
Answer: A

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NO.8 When a Celerra quota is turned off, how does that affect the existing user and group quota information?
A. User and group quota statistics are deleted.
B. Group statistics are retained and user statistics are not.
C. User and group statistics are retained.
D. User statistics are retained and group statistics are not.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is a minimum requirement when creating a file system using Manual Volume Management?
A. Metavolume
B. Mirror volume
C. Sliced volumes
D. Striped volumes
Answer: A

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NO.10 A site administrator needs to disable user and group quotas. What happens to the existing quota
configuration and metadata?
A. Maintained
B. Enforced
C. Deleted
D. Reset
Answer: A

EMC   E20-538   E20-538   E20-538

NO.11 Which command would successfully extend a Data Mover root file system?
A. as root issue /nas/sbin/rootnas_fs -xtend root_fs_2 size=2G pool=clar_r5_performance
B. as nasadmin issue nas_fs -xtend root_fs_2 size=2G pool=clar_r5_performance
C. as root issue /nas/sbin/rootnas_fs -xtend root_fs_2 size=2K pool=clar_r5_performance
D. as nasadmin issue nas_fs -xtend root_fs_2 size=2G pool=clar_r5_performance
Answer: A

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NO.12 A system administrator is trying to create a non-root file system of type UxFS, on a metavolume. What is
the minimum size to create the file system?
A. 4 GB
B. 1 MB
C. 2 GB
D. 2 MB
Answer: D

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NO.13 You are running out of capacity on your Celerra, and additional storage is already on order. Meanwhile,
which quota configuration would track user consumption?
A. User quotas on the file system
B. Group quotas on the tree
C. Tree quotas on the file system
D. User quotas on the tree
Answer: A

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NO.14 A network administrator needs to create a trunk on a Data Mover from dissimilar physical network
devices.
What networking configuration should be used to accomplish this?
A. LACP
B. Fail Safe Network
C. EtherChannel
D. SNMP
Answer: C

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NO.15 An administrator configured Data Mover network devices to transmit frames on all links for redundancy.
Which network configuration was used to accomplish this.?
A. LACP
B. Proxy ARP
C. Ethernet channel
D. RARP
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-017
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Information Availability Design Specialist Exam for Data Center Architects)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

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NO.1 A company wants to replace its physical tape library with a virtual tape library (VTL). To deploy the VTL,
the company spends $300,000 for the hardware costs and $60,000 for the implementation charges. Once
the data is migrated from the physical tape library to the VTL, the physical tape library will be
decommissioned for a cost of $50,000. The company will gain $60,000 per month due to this VTL
implementation.
What is the return on investment (ROI) in one year and the break-even point for the company ¯:s initial
investment?
A. 35%; Month 6
B. 35%; Month 7
C. 76%; Month 6
D. 76%; Month 7
Answer: D

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NO.2 As represented in the exhibit, a company has a system with three critical components. Each component
must be functioning for the system to be operational.
What is the scheduled availability (percentage) for the system?
A. 84
B. 86
C. 88
D. 90
Answer: C

EMC   E20-017   E20-017

NO.3 A company has estimated a cost of $240,000 to build its new data center. The new data center will
serve an additional 20,000 clients for which the company will gain $35,000 per month. In addition, the
company has agreed to spend $2,000 every month in support costs.
In order to achieve a break-even point, what is the minimum time period the data center must be
operational?
A. 8 months
B. 9 months
C. 10 months
D. 11 months
Answer: A

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NO.4 As represented in the exhibit, a company has a system with three critical components.
Each component must be functioning for the system to be operational. SLAs have been established
between the business and IT that define normal hours of operations for service as 8 A.M. - 8 P.M.,
Monday through Friday.
What is the availability (percentage) of Component 1?
A. 78
B. 81.7
C. 89
D. 91.7
Answer: B

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NO.5 A company has a system with three critical components as represented in the exhibit.
Each component must be functioning for the system to be operational. Following an outage, certain
components seem to take longer to restore back to service than others.
What is the mean time to repair (MTTR) for Component 3?
A. 2 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 5 hours
D. 10 hours
Answer: C

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NO.6 A company has a shared pre-staged infrastructure at an alternate site. This approach enables the
company to rebuild systems and applications in the event of a disaster.
What is the term for this strategy?
A. Hot site
B. Manual failover site
C. Cold site
D. Warm site
Answer: A

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NO.7 In which focus area of the Information Availability Design Framework can platform integrity be found?
A. Store
B. Automate
C. Create copies
D. Distribute
Answer: A

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NO.8 The exhibit represents the expected financial results of a storage technology investment.
What does the ® ¯: represent?
A. Cost of investment equals the gain from the investment
B. Asset exceeds liability
C. Deployment cost crosses the planned deployment time
D. Return on investment
Answer: A

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NO.9 In the context of "establishing information availability," what is an operation management activity?
A. Capacity planning
B. Data classification
C. Testing
D. Implementation planning
Answer: A

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NO.10 Based on strategic plans regarding green initiatives, an IT department is considering server
consolidation in its data centers.
Which set of elements should be included in the business value analysis to maximize the ROI for such an
initiative?
A. Asset utilization, recovery of stranded assets, and cost of floor space and power
B. Productivity of staff, response to business conditions, and utilization of storage
C. Asset utilization, backup costs, and need for availability
D. Cost of floor space and power, FTE-managed TB of storage, and reduction in SLA penalties
Answer: A

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NO.11 In which focus area of the Information Availability Design Framework can seamless movement of data
between tiers of storage be found?
A. Automate
B. Create Copies
C. Distribute
D. Store
Answer: A

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NO.12 A company has estimated a cost of $220,000 to build its new data center. The new data center will
serve an additional 20,000 clients for which the company will gain $30,000 per month. In addition, the
company has agreed to spend $1,000 every month in support costs.
In order to achieve a break-even point, what is the minimum time period the data center must be
operational?
A. 8 months
B. 9 months
C. 10 months
D. 11 months
Answer: A

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NO.13 The exhibit represents a Component Failure Impact Analysis (CFIA) for a company's IT infrastructure.
Several Requests for Change (RFC) were raised.
Which RFC should be considered a priority for implementation?
A. Deploying a switch architecture with no single point of failure
B. Clustering the backup server with multiple storage devices
C. Configuring the NAS device in an active-active mode
D. Adding more disk drives to the storage array
Answer: A

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NO.14 A company's IT department is comparing two technology proposals. Option 1 would retain legacy
equipment while Option 2 would replace the existing equipment with a new one.
Option 1:
-Total operation costs = $400,000 per year -Annual storage requirements = $100,000 per year
Option 2:
-Initial investment = $1,250,000 -Recurring annual operation costs = $150,000 per year -Annual storage
requirements = $100,000 per year
The company's write-off costs for the legacy equipment is $50,000. As a business analyst using a TCO
analysis, which option would you recommend?
A. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
B. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is more than 6 years
C. Options 1 and 2 are feasible if the project lifespan is 5 years
D. Option 2 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
Answer: A

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NO.15 A company wants to replace its physical tape library with a virtual tape library (VTL). To deploy the VTL,
the company spends $300,000 for the hardware costs and $50,000 for the implementation charges.
Once the data is migrated from the physical tape library to the VTL, the physical tape library will be
decommissioned for a cost of $50,000. The company will gain $70,000 per month due to this VTL
implementation.
What is the return on investment (ROI) in one year and the break-even point for the company ¯:s initial
investment?
A. 85%; Month 8
B. 85%; Month 9
C. 110%; Month 6
D. 110%; Month 8
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-390
Nom d'Examen: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers )
Questions et réponses: 333 Q&As

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NO.1 Which utility on a Windows server can be used to view the HBA WWN details?
A. Unisphere Host Agent
B. Unisphere Server Utility
C. HBAnywhere
D. Device Manager
Answer: C

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NO.2 How does the VNX handle LUN ownership changes so that the access path to the LUN is available to
both SPs simultaneously?
A. By the host software being aware of SP ownership
B. By the SPs sharing ownership of the LUNs
C. By using ALUA Failover Mode
D. By the LUN being trespassed.
Answer: C

EMC   E20-390   E20-390   E20-390

NO.3 If a source LUN is trespassed, what happens to a fractured clone LUN?
A. Neither the clone LUN nor the fracture logs will be acquired by the peer SP
B. The peer SP acquires the fracture logs.
C. The peer SP acquires both the clone LUN and the fracture logs.
D. The peer SP acquires the clone LUN.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Where in Unisphere do you assign FAST Cache to LUNs?
A. At the LUN level under a RAID group
B. At the LUN level under a storage pool
C. Under FAST Cache system properties
D. Under the Advanced tab of RAIDGROUP Properties
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator has finished configuring the zoning on their MDS-series switch and issues the
following command: zoneset activate name ActiveZS vsan 100
What happens?
A. Zoneset ActiveZS is activated on VSAN 100
B. Zoneset ActiveZS is created on VSAN 100
C. VSAN 100 is created and activated.
D. VSAN 100 is named ActiveZS
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement correctly describes a benefit of using a Virtual Data Mover (VDM)?
A. It supports the separation of CIFS servers and their shares
B. It enables the replication of NFS exports
C. It can be configured as a standby for failover.
D. It provides security for users in multi-protocol environments
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are planning to add a new DAE to a VNX storage system. Doing so will exceed the supported total
drive count by four drives. What impact will this have on the operation of the VNX system?
A. The DAE will be recognized but four drive slots will not function.
B. All slots on the DAE will be available for use.
C. Connecting the new DAE will take the bus offline.
D. The DAE can be physically connected, but will not be available.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A user is creating a dynamic disk on a Windows host. The first disk is fully utilized. Writes continue to
the next disk. Which volume type did they select?
A. Striped
B. Spanned
C. RAID 5
D. Mirrored
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which Linux distribution supports both MPFS and pNFS.?
A. CentOS
B. RedHat
C. Fedora
D. Debian
Answer: B

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NO.10 What are the severity levels available with Unisphere event notifications?
A. Critical and Informational
B. High and Low
C. Critical and Low
D. High and Warning
Answer: A

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NO.11 An administrator tries to modify the quota settings on a CIFS share from a Windows Server 2003 host,
but the Quota tab does not exist in the network drive properties. What could be a possible cause?
A. Quotas can be managed only with Windows Server 2008
B. The user does not have administrator privileges on this share
C. Exporting is implemented at the file system subdirectory level on VNX OE for File.
D. Windows users cannot modify the quota settings
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which CLI command displays the IP configuration of each Data Mover?
A. server_ifconfig
B. /sbin/ifconfig
C. server_sysconfig
D. server_devconfig
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which VNX feature is used to reclaim unused storage space?
A. LUN migration
B. LUN shrink
C. Thin provisioning
D. RAID group defragment
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the fan-in ratio for MirrorView/A?
A. 1: 1
B. 2: 1
C. 4: 1
D. 8: 1
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which LDAP username format is correct for CLI authentication on a VNX system?
A. <username>
B. <username>@FQDN
C. <domain>\<username>
D. <username>.FGDN
Answer: B

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NO.16 In a VNX array with FAST VP enabled, what is the size of the data slice (chunk) that can be relocated
between tiers?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 5 GB
D. 10 GB
Answer: A

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NO.17 The preferred path to your VMware ESX host failed. Which native multi-pathing policy will revert to the
preferred path when it is restored?
A. Fixed only
B. MRU only
C. Round-robin
D. Bath Fixed and MRU
Answer: A

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NO.18 An administrator exports a newly created file system and finds two directories, called etc and
lost+found. The administrator does not want these directions to appear in the export.
What should the administrator do to address this issue?
A. The administrator should delete the directories
B. Create a subdirectory below the root of the file system and export it
C. Nothing, this is normal and these two directories will show in all exports
D. The administrator should change the attribute of these directories to hidden
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is the length of RSA keys used to encrypt and decrypt network traffic in a VNX environment?
A. 2048 bytes
B. 1024 bits
C. 1024 bytes
D. 2048 bits
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is the maximum number of Fibre Channel initiator ports, per Linux host, supported by VNX for
Block?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-547
Nom d'Examen: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators )
Questions et réponses: 203 Q&As

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NO.1 Which RecoverPoint configuration details can be presented in report format when using Data Protection
Advisor.?
A. RPA configuration changes
B. Replication sets
C. Replication lag
D. Link state change
Answer: C

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NO.2 What will prevent a storage administrator from deleting a storage group?
A. The presence of LUNs in the storage group
B. The presence of MirrorView target LUNs in the storage group
C. The presence of MirrorView source LUNs in the storage group
D. The presence of hosts in the storage group
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the CLI command to enable Access Logix?
A. naviseccli -h <SP_name> storagegroup -enable
B. naviseccli -h <SP_name> accesslogix -enable
C. naviseccli -h <SP_name> storagegroup -on
D. naviseccli -h <SP_name> accesslogix -on
Answer: B

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NO.4 If a source LUN is trespassed, what happens to a fractured cloned LUN?
A. The peer SP acquires the feature logs
B. The peer SP acquires the clone LUN
C. The peer SP acquires both the clone LUN and the feature logs
D. Neither the clone LUN nor the feature logs will be acquired by the peer SP
Answer: C

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NO.5 At which RAID level are FAST Cache drives configured for VNX arrays?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
Answer: B

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NO.6 When performing switch maintenance, a customer accidentally disconnects all network connections to
an active VNX Data Mover
How does VNX handle this situation?
A. The primary Data Mover remains active
B. The VNX always notifies EMC Customer Service of the problem
C. The active Data Mover immediately fails over
D. The active Data Mover fails over after 30 seconds of lost connectivity
Answer: A

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NO.7 What does the acronym "CHAP" refer to?
A. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol
B. Challenge Handshake Authorization Protocol
C. CLARiiON Handshake Authentication
D. Consistent Host Application Protocol
Answer: A

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NO.8 After presenting a LUN to a Linux host, which utility is used to configure a partition?
A. fdisk
B. Unisphere Server Utility
C. Unisphere Service Manager
D. Disk Management
Answer: A

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NO.9 In a VNX series array, how does FAST manage data in a heterogeneous storage pool?
A. It relocates LUNs from one tier to another to improve performance.
B. It relocates more active data to faster drives and less active data to slower drives.
C. It relocates more active data from tier 1storage without users noticing the difference.
D. It acts as an application accelerator and relocates LUNs based on performance.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the preferred method for partitioning VNX FC LUNs attached to a Windows Server 2008 R2
host?
A. Disk Management
B. fdisk
C. format
D. vtoc
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which criterion must be met before executing the storage pool -destroy command with Navisphere
secure CLI.
A. Complete removal of all LUNs from the pool
B. Complete removal of unused LUNs from the pool
C. Complete removal of large LUNs from the pool
D. Complete removal of empty LUNs from the pool
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which Unisphere wizard can automatically allocate all available disk storage and present it as private
LUNs?
A. Backend Bus Reset Wizard
B. File System Wizard
C. Disk Provisioning Wizard for File
D. Celera Setup Wizard
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which Linux kernel supports dynamic LUN scanning?
A. 2.3
B. 2.4
C. 2.5
D. 2.6
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which Unisphere storage role will limit a user to the administration of the file system checkpoints, LUN
mirrors, and replication manager tasks?
A. Data recovery
B. Administration
C. Data protection
D. NAS administrator
Answer: C

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NO.15 A file system has auto_extend enabled. If the file system size is greater than the extend_size value.
What will happen when the file system reaches its HWM?
A. The file system will not be extended
B. The extend size value cannot by less than the die system size
C. The file system is extended by the extend_size value
D. The file system is extended by five percent of its size
Answer: D

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NO.16 What happens when a reverse synchronization completes without Protected Restore Mode enabled?
A. Only the reverse-synchronized clone remains unfractured
B. Host writes to the source LUN are not mirrored to clone
C. The gold copy clone used for restore will remain as is
D. All clones will be fractured
Answer: B

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NO.17 An administrator tries to modify the quota settings on a CIFS share from a windows server 2003 host,
but the quota tab does not exist in the network drive properties. What could be a possible cause?
A. Exporting is implemented at the file system subdirectory level on VNX OE for File.
B. The user does not have administrator privileges on this share.
C. Quotas can be managed only with Windows Server 2008.
D. Windows users cannot modify the quota settings.
Answer: A

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NO.18 What happens when a new CFS share is created using Unisphere and all available CIFS server check
boxes remain unchecked?
A. The VNX system prompts for selection of at least one CFS server
B. A global share Is created and served by the primary VDM
C. A global share is created and served by all CIFS servers residing on the Data Mover
D. None of the CIFS servers residing on the Data Mover serve the newly created share
Answer: D

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NO.19 How many storage groups can a host belong to in an array?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which failover mode must be configured to use vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI)
functionality?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: E20-918
Nom d'Examen: EMC (IT-as-a-Service Expert Exam for Cloud Architects)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 The first phase of new ITaaS service introduces the offering to 10% of the engineering organization. The
IT organization leverages the management tools used in their traditional data center processes to provide
visibility into silos and control of the infrastructure. They also have adapted some ITSM concepts as a
framework for their management practices.
During the initial phase of the service deployment, a problem was encountered in one of the VMs.
The IT organization is concerned about the extensive amount of time and resources spent determining
the cause of the issue.
What is the most likely reason it takes more time than expected to resolve the problem?
A. The legacy management tools do not have the capability to provide a holistic view of the service
instance
B. The expertise of the service desk personnel is inadequate to properly handle service related issues
C. The complex nature of orchestration and automation makes problem identification and root cause
analysis unlikely.
D. The cultural hurdles that span organizational silos have not been addressed and resolved.
Answer: A

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NO.2 An organization wishes to move toward full ITaaS implementation. Their IT team is skilled, disciplined,
and exhibits strong teamwork. They have demonstrated the ability to deliver services with supporting
processes and regulations.
As their ITaaS consultant, you need to take them to the next level in the service orientation maturity model.
What is the next level?
A. Service Aligned
B. Service Aware
C. Service Capable
D. Service Neutral
Answer: A

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NO.3 The marketing line of business of an enterprise has deployed web services within a private cloud. They
wish to provide additional web services elastically and distribute them around the globe using a public
cloud provider.
The web services have a loosely coupled design and have no content dependencies on any resources in
the private cloud. They are created from a standard PaaS template, which includes an intrusion
prevention system that periodically polls a central management server for security updates. The IPS
management server is located within the private cloud. No layer 2 connectivity exists between the private
and public clouds. The consumers of these web services are distributed across the globe.
Which solution would you recommend to best support the web service elasticity and to minimize service
network latency for the consumer?
A. Implement an encrypted VPN tunnel between the private and public clouds.
B. Implement a global load balancing service as a front-end for the web services.
C. Increase bandwidth between the private cloud and the Internet.
D. Deploy a central database server to consolidate web service content.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A manufacturing company hired you to help them in their journey to a hybrid cloud. You conduct an
assessment and recommend migrating several existing Tier 2 applications to a public cloud provider. You
must work within the following constraints:
-Migration can be performed only during weekends -Only limited downtime is acceptable -The
configuration of the host and applications cannot be changed -The company needs to keep the costs as
low as possible -Although there are no specific performance requirements, they are concerned about the
quality
of the user experience
Which solution best addresses these needs?
A. Layer 2 extension with VPN connection over Internet with WAN optimization
B. Layer 3 connection over Internet with QoS
C. Layer 3 connection over Internet with WAN optimization
D. Layer 2 extension with dedicated link and WAN optimization
Answer: A

EMC   E20-918   E20-918

NO.5 A large service provider is designing a solution to protect itself against malicious content, such as
viruses in a SOAP attachment, and denial of service attacks.
Which type of firewall is most appropriate for their needs?
A. Linked VPNs
B. Federated
C. Reverse proxy servers
D. XML
Answer: D

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NO.6 An enterprise has decided to implement a new service that will process credit card information. They
will deploy this service within their private cloud. They have a relationship with a public cloud provider that
claims to be PCI compliant.
The enterprise wishes to implement a service that is PCI compliant with the least amount of effort. The
service is protected by a policy-based intrusion detection system. Cardholder data is securely transmitted
to the web interface.
Which additional design elements would best be suited for this implementation?
A. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. No credit card information is stored within the application.
B. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted, stored, and securely sent
directly to the credit card processing system. Credit card information is stored within the public cloud
provider using AES 128 encryption.
C. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. Credit card information is backed up to the private cloud system and
stored using AES 128 encryption.
D. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent to both the
credit card processing system and to private cloud for historical tracking and reporting only.
Answer: A

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NO.7 The IT group within a manufacturing organization is transforming their manual service offerings into
automated service offerings to be available from a service catalog. After reviewing the required KPIs for
the service, the service transition project manager asks you if the monitoring tools they currently employ
need to be replaced.
What criteria are needed to effectively monitor the required KPIs?
A. Can they measure, gather, analyze, and present the required metrics?
B. Can they control, automate, monitor and manage all elements of the service?
C. Can they provide end-to-end support of the services?
D. Can they integrate with the orchestration engine to provide automation?
Answer: A

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NO.8 A company is deploying a major new business application. The company has difficulty managing the
software development lifecycle. As a result, the time from generating requirements to operational delivery
is significant.
Which best addresses the company s need for shorter release cycles and better code quality?
A. Implement common collaboration tools
B. Utilize configuration management methodologies
C. Use of common automation and orchestration processes
D. Transition to a DevOps culture
Answer: D

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NO.9 An enterprise decided to place some sensitive data in the public cloud and implemented security
mechanisms to protect this data.
Recently the public cloud provider's systems had a security breach. The enterprise was not concerned
because they felt their data had been completely protected. All of the services housing the data are
protected by an IPS application and no alerts were generated by the system.
How did the enterprise protect its data?
A. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest and in-transit. The encryption
keys were under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
B. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest and in-transit. Copies of the
encryption keys were secured by the public cloud provider in case they were lost.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were neither accessed nor copied.
C. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted in-transit only. The encryption keys were
under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
D. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest only. The encryption keys were
under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
Answer: A

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NO.10 A hosting company has experienced a sudden increase in customer interest and wishes to implement
ITaaS. They are now hosting online shopping applications for several retail computer and electronics
companies.
Developers in the customer companies use their own internal credentials and have the ability to publish
applications and changes to their stores. Shoppers access these stores using a variety of mobile
applications and web browsers.
What should be addressed when migrating to ITaaS and implementing a service catalog for the retail and
electronic companies?
A. Integration with different authentication systems
B. Support for several different CMDB systems
C. Integration of multiple hypervisors
D. On-demand resource pool creation
Answer: A

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NO.11 An enterprise company has a large, virtualized data center. They are currently in the process of auditing
their virtual servers to ensure they are in compliance with regulatory requirements.
They want to be able to check new and existing virtual servers for compliance and automatically
remediate any virtual machines that are found to be out of compliance.
As a Cloud Architect, which product would you recommend for this purpose?
A. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud (CIAC)
B. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
C. VMware vCenter Configuration Manager
D. RSA Archer eGRC Platform
Answer: C

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NO.12 A large enterprise has several applications deployed in a hybrid cloud. Ever since the hybrid cloud was
deployed, the enterprise network operations center has never been able to fully reconcile network and
audit logs.
What should be investigated first as the possible source of the issue?
A. Confirm time is synchronized between locations
B. Filtering false positives
C. Exposing management APIs
D. Tenant in-control versus provider in-control differences
Answer: A

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NO.13 A financial company has made several acquisitions within the past few years. They currently have two
primary data centers that are 50 km apart. Recently, an internal assessment was conducted to explore
ways to improve ingress/egress utilization and to extend their firewall to the cloud.
Which type of firewall would best suit their needs?
A. Reverse proxy servers
B. Federated
C. Load balanced reverse proxy servers
D. Linked VPN
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which metric measures the time taken to realize benefits from an ITaaS solution?
A. Time-to-value
B. Time-to-live
C. Time-to-deliver
D. Time-to-deploy
Answer: A

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NO.15 An IT organization is currently 80% virtualized and the CIO is planning for the transition to ITaaS.
Senior executives are concerned that IT supports too many services and that many of the services are
neither efficient nor necessary.
What argument can the CIO make to address the executives' concerns and convince them that ITaaS is
the correct strategic decision?
A. ITaaS promotes the rationalization of services currently being offered by IT and offers the services that
provide business value through the service catalog.
B. A CMDB can be utilized during the instantiation of the services to improve service levels for the
consumers of IT services.
C. ITaaS offers an opportunity to evaluate whether certain IT services should be sourced with a public
cloud service provider.
D. ITaaS promotes the concept of on-demand self-service, allowing consumers to use only the services
from which they can derive business value.
Answer: A

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