Apple meilleur examen 9L0-064, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 9L0-064

Nom d'Examen: Apple (OS X v10.8 Troubleshooting Exam)

Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a kernel extension in OS X?
A. A user specific software library.
B. A place to store global system preference settings.
C. A software driver that provides driver support for hardware, networking, and peripherals.
D. The system for starting, stopping and managing daemons, applications, processes, and scripts.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your customer runs her small business on an iMac with OS X Mountain Lion. She would like to
keep her data secure with FileVault 2, but is worried that she will have to share her administrator
password with the rest of the staff. How should you address this concern?
A. The customer should enable the Automatic login feature in the User & Group preferences.
B. This is a limitation of FileVault 2. The customer will have to share her password to use the
feature.
C. Ask the customer to disable FileVault 2 when others wish to use the computer, then re-enable it
when they are done.
D. The customer can give other user accounts the ability to unlock the disk in the Security &
Privacy preferences when she enables FileVault 2.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Please examine the image above. A customer with a MacBook Air (13-inch, Mid 2011) sees this
image on his screen. What would cause his Mac to display this image at startup?
A. Internet Recovery has started downloading the OS X Recovery system image.
B. The Mac is starting up from an external USB or Thunderbolt storage device.
C. EFI has detected a hardware issue.
D. Apple Service Diagnostics is loading.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are troubleshooting an application which bounces in the dock for a few seconds, then
stops
without launching or displaying an error message. What built-in utility is best for displaying
application and system messages that are not shown to a user?
A. Logger
B. Console
C. Terminal
D. System Information
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following are supported connection methods when transferring data from a PC
to a
Mac using Migration Assistant? SELECT TWO:
A. Fibre Channel
B. Target Disk Mode
C. Wi-Fi networking
D. Ethernet networking
E. Online Backup Services
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 What should customers be aware of if they need to use Safari or reinstall OS X Mountain Lion
when their Mac has been started from OS X Recovery?
A. A valid Apple ID is required to use Safari on OS X Recovery.
B. An internet connection is required to use Safari and reinstall OS X.
C. A Mac must have at least 4GB of memory to reinstall OS X Mountain Lion.
D. They must charge the Mac’s battery to 100% before starting from OS X Recovery.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer with Os X Mountain Lion installed has decided to give his Mac to his son. How can
he
easily erase the hard disk and reinstall OS X Mountain Lion?
A. He should buy a OS X Mountain Lion USB drive from Apple, start up from it and choose the
erase and install option in the installer.
B. He must use target disk mode and perform the erase and install option in OS X Mountain Lion
from another Mac.
C. He should start up to OS X Recovery, use Disk Utility to erase the hard disk’s volume, then
choose the Reinstall OS X option.
D. He should use a OS X Lion USB Drive, startup from it and erase the hard disk using Disk Utility.
After installing OS X Lion, creating a new user, and installing software updates; he will then
download OS X Mountain Lion from the Mac App Store.
Answer: C

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NO.8 A technician suspects that an application’s preference file is causing the app to crash at
launch.
Which of the following techniques would be best to confirm the issue?
A. Use a Time Machine backup to restore the entire User folder.
B. Delete the application, reinstall it, then try launching it again.
C. Startup from OS X Recovery, open Disk Utility and repair the startup disk.
D. Use “Go to Folder...” or press the Option key to access the user library, move the suspected
preference file to the desktop and then try launching the application.
Answer: D

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NO.9 A user moves a file into a folder named “my stuff” and sees this message:
“You can put items into “my stuff,” but you won’t be able to see them. Do you want to continue?
Other users with sufficient permissions will be able to use the items.”
This means the user’s folder permissions to “my stuff” have been set to
A. Read only
B. Write only
C. Read & Write
D. Execute only
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer would like to use target disk mode to transfer a large file from their Mac Pro using
OS
X Mountain Lion to a friend’s MacBook Pro using OS X Snow Leopard. The Mac Pro’s hard disk is
encrypted using FileVault 2. Which technique is the best to quickly transfer the file?
A. Place the Mac Pro with OS X Mountain Lion into target disk mode then transfer the file using
the Snow Leopard Finder.
B. Place the MacBook Pro with Snow Leopard into target disk mode then transfer the file using the
OS X Mountain Lion Finder.
C. Turn off encryption on the Mac Pro with OS X Mountain Lion, when de-encryption is finished
place it into target disk mode and transfer the file using the Snow Leopard Finder.
D. Use live partitioning in the Disk Utility to create a non-encrypted volume on the Mac Pro. Copy
the file to that volume, then place the Mac Pro into target disk mode and transfer the file using the
Snow Leopard Finder.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: DU0-001

Nom d'Examen: APC (Data Center University Associate Certification)

Questions et réponses: 325 Q&As

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NO.1 An infrared scan of cabling can detect what two problems? (Choose two.)
A. An overloaded circuit
B. A loose connection
C. Compatibility errors
D. Electrical interference
Answer: AB

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NO.2 What would be a comprehensive strategy for protecting the most critical racks of a data center?
A. Key access to the critical racks
B. Video camera pointed directly at critical racks
C. Iris scanner at the entrance to the data center
D. Nested security perimeters with racks at the innermost level
Answer: D

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NO.3 How do enclosures improve rack system cooling?
A. By improving natural air flow
B. By improving fire suppression
C. By allowing hot and cold air to mix together
D. By preventing hot and cold air from mixing together
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is an advantage of choosing a four-post open frame rack over a two-post open frame rack?
A. Lower cost
B. Smaller footprint
C. Easier assembly
D. Increased strength
Answer: D

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NO.5 Cooling towers are a typical component of which heat rejection system?
A. Water cooled system
B. Glycol cooled system
C. Air cooled split system
D. Air cooled self-contained system
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is required for the transfer of heat from one object to another?
A. A difference in airflow
B. A difference in volume
C. A difference in pressure
D. A difference in temperature
Answer: D

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in the exhibit?
A. Flooded supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: A

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Fully ducted supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: A

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NO.9 What are three advantages of biometric access control? (Choose three.)
A. Cannot be lost
B. Inexpensive to deploy
C. Difficult to fool the sensor
D. Cannot be shared with others
E. Always correctly identifies the user
Answer: ACD

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NO.10 What is the difference between an undervoltage and a sag?
A. A sag lasts less time than an undervoltage condition.
B. A sag has less of a voltage drop than an undervoltage condition.
C. A sag is due to downstream loads and undervoltage is due to the power source.
D. A sag occurs in low voltage distribution and undervoltage occurs in high voltage distribution.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Requiring frequent password changes can compromise security because _____.
A. Users tend to write down frequently changed passwords
B. It makes the password database an easier target for hackers
C. It makes it harder for legitimate users to access their own data
D. It burdens the IT help desk with requests for forgotten or expired passwords
Answer: A

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NO.12 What describes the ratio of watts to volt-amps?
A. Frequency
B. Power factor
C. Actual power
D. Apparent power
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is a component of the network-critical physical infrastructure (NCPI)?
A. Voice over IP
B. Fire protection
C. Office supplies
D. Desktop application software
Answer: B

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NO.14 What are three benefits of Inergen? (Choose three.)
A. It is non-conductive.
B. It has zero ozone depletion potential.
C. It has a low pressure delivery system.
D. It requires less storage tanks than Halon.
E. It is safe to discharge in an occupied area.
Answer: ABE

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NO.15 What is the highest cost UPS configuration?
A. System + system
B. Parallel redundant
C. Isolated redundant
D. Distributed redundant
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is defined as the force of electricity moving through a circuit?
A. Volt
B. Amp
C. Ohm
D. Frequency
Answer: A

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NO.17 What does GFCI mean?
A. Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter
B. General Facilities Cooling Index
C. Gaussian Filter Charge Indicator
D. Grounded Flaw Circuitry Installed
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which statement correctly defines direct current (DC)?
A. Only high voltage is used.
B. Electricity flows in one direction only.
C. The circuit does not have multiple paths.
D. The circuit is directly attached to the power source.
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is an example of a standard building management system (BMS) protocol?
A. IPV6
B. TCP/IP
C. MODBUS
D. 10/100 BASE-T
Answer: C

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NO.20 What describes the number of times AC current is switched back and forth over a period of 1 second?
A. Voltage
B. Frequency
C. Amperage
D. Power factor
Answer: B

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NO.21 Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
C. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: B

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NO.22 What does the CFD acronym stand for?
A. Certified Field Dichotomy
B. Circular Flow Determination
C. Computational Finite Deviation
D. Computational Fluid Dynamics
Answer: D

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NO.23 What is a difference between Single-phase and three-phase power?
A. Single-phase power is flat but three-phase power is sinusoidal.
B. Single-phase power is dependent on power factor but three-phase power is not.
C. Single-phase power is limited to approximately 120 kW but three-phase power is unlimited.
D. Single-phase power is more costly for the power company to distribute than three-phase power.
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which type of humidification system uses quartz lamps extended over an open pool of water to
release water vapor?
A. Infrared humidifier
B. Ultrasonic humidifier
C. Electromagnetic humidifier
D. Steam canister humidifier
Answer: A

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NO.25 What is the unit of measurement of the electrical resistance of a circuit?
A. Volt
B. Amp
C. Ohm
D. Frequency
Answer: C

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NO.26 What is the purpose of grounding?
A. To protect against electric shock
B. To step down 208 V power to 120 V power
C. To maintain the voltage during neutral wire bonding
D. To provide a path for the Ground Fault Interrupt (GFI) circuit
Answer: A

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NO.27 What is the unit of measurement of the electrical current moving through a circuit?
A. Volt
B. Amp
C. Ohm
D. Frequency
Answer: B

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NO.28 What are three power distribution components found in data centers? (Choose three.)
A. Ground loop
B. Branch circuit
C. Metered outlet strip
D. Power distribution unit (PDU)
E. Valve regulated lead acid (VRLA) battery
Answer: BCD

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NO.29 The rear of an IT equipment rack is fitted with a duct that is connected to a drop ceiling plenum; the
plenum is connected by a duct to the perimeter CRAC unit. The CRAC unit discharges air into a raised
floor. The IT equipment rack is located above a hole in the raised floor which allows conditioned air to
enter the rack.
This is an example of which type of air distribution system?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Fully ducted supply, fully ducted return
Answer: D

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NO.30 What does the term "5-nines" availability mean?
A. 5 minutes of downtime per year
B. 9 minutes of downtime per year
C. 14 minutes of downtime per year
D. 45 minutes of downtime per year
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 4A0-100

Nom d'Examen: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Scalable IP Networks)

Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement best describes how the internet evolved?
A.The internet emerged in the commercial world in the 1980s following the US militarys adoption of
TCP/IP in 1983.
B.The internet evolved from a military to a research to a commercial based network.
C.The internet remained primarily a research based network and was only commercially adopted in 2000
when the world wide web was conceived.
D.Internet service providers provided the services necessary for military based networks to evolve into
research and education based networks.
ANSWER: b

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NO.2 Which of the following are protocols belonging to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose two)
A.OSPF
B.BGP
C.X.500
D.IS-IS
E.Ethernet
ANSWER: de

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NO.3 You are configuring your Alcatel-Lucent 7750SR Service Router from the Command Line Interface
(CLI), and after entering a lengthy command, wish to return directly to the ROOT context. Which control
command allows you to do this quickly?
A.Ctrl-z
B.Ctrl-c
C.Esc
D.Shift-Page Down
ANSWER: a

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NO.4 Which organization eventually became the standards body for IP and related protocols?
A.IEEE
B.IETF
C.NSFNET
D.ITU-T
E.APNIC
ANSWER: b

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NO.5 What kind of information can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client receive?
A.Details of the configuration settings of each router on the network.
B.A list of other DHCP clients.
C.IP addresses and their lease times.
D.Server time information
ANSWER: c

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NO.6 How do protocols such as ATM and Frame-Relay support differentiating multiple customers or traffic
types on the same physical wire?
A.ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use Virtual Circuits to create logical
separation of traffic.
B.ATM and Frame-Relay are point-to-point protocols and do not support different customers or traffic type
on the same physical wire.
C.ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use VLAN's to create logical separation of
traffic.
D.ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use IP Header information to create logical
separation of traffic.
ANSWER: a

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NO.7 Which statement accurately explains the purpose of the TCP protocol and what it provides?
A.The primary purpose of TCP is to provide reliable communications between application services.
B.The primary purpose of TCP is to provide unreliable communications between application services
C.The primary purpose of TCP is to provide IP routing between application services.
D.The primary purpose of TCP is to define the correct format for the application layer such as JPEG or
HTML.
ANSWER: a

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NO.8 Which of the following statements best describes ARPANET?
A.ARPANET was an early packet switched network initially connecting 4 sites (Stanford, UC Santa
Barbara, UCLA, and U of Utah).
B.The mission of ARPANET was to connect packet switched networks and other diverse networks,
making an international network of networks.
C.ARPANET connected sites spread around the Hawaiian Islands to a central time-sharing computer on
the University of Hawaii campus.
D.ARPANET was based on the use of TCP/IP to interconnect diverse systems.
ANSWER: a

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NO.9 which of the following is the best description of well known ports?
A.Well known ports apply to routers only and are used for communication and control traffic. Well known
port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.
B.Well known ports are used by TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1024 to 65535 and
are assigned by IANA.
C.Well known port numbers are used by both TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1 to
1023 and are assigned by IANA.
D.Well known ports numbers are used by TCP only. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and
can have any value.
ANSWER: c

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NO.10 The IANA is responsible for:
A.Intra-city ISP traffic.
B.Allocation of the global IP address space.
C.Allocating IP addresses for residential customer traffic.
D.Allocating North American IP addresses .
ANSWER: b

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NO.11 The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets and host addresses
will you obtain with this mask?
A.4 subnets, 64 hosts
B.64 subnets, 4 hosts
C.4 subnets, 62 hosts
D.64 subnets, 2 hosts
E.6 subnets, 30 hosts
ANSWER: c

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NO.12 Which organization first considered cross-platform networking support to be a necessity?
A.IBM.
B.US Military.
C.Alcatel-Lucent.
D.NASA.
E.Bell Labs
ANSWER: b

certification Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-100   4A0-100   4A0-100   4A0-100

NO.13 Which of the following is a feature of Layer 3?
A.Provides an universal addressing scheme
B.Ensures data is delivered across the Layer 2 network.
C.Provides reliable data transfers.
D.Provides a physical interface to the network.
ANSWER: a

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-100   certification 4A0-100   4A0-100

NO.14 Which of the following best describes a repeater?
A.A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate or amplify any signals.
B.A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its ports, but does not do any Layer 2 analysis of the
data.
C.A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on
which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
D.A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on
which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
E.A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address, makes a decision on
which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
ANSWER: b

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-100   4A0-100   certification 4A0-100   4A0-100

NO.15 Choose two true statements that characterize Link State Routing
A.Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically.
B.Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.
C.Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.
D.Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.
ANSWER: cd

certification Alcatel-Lucent   certification 4A0-100   4A0-100   4A0-100   4A0-100 examen   4A0-100

NO.16 To transmit its segments of data across the network TCP uses the services of which layer
A.Application Layer.
B.Transport Layer.
C.IP Layer.
D.Data Link Layer
ANSWER: c

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-100   4A0-100

NO.17 Which of the following is an important advantage of protocol layering? (Choose two)
A.Controls distribution of IP addresses.
B.Simplifies protocol functionality.
C.Isolates changes in lower layers from upper layers.
D.Increases protocol operational efficiencies.
E.Layering adds to the fragmentation of the data
ANSWER: cd

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-100   certification 4A0-100   4A0-100

NO.18 What is the name for an organization that provides Internet services to its customers
A.A large corporation.
B.An ISP.
C.A home based business.
D.A content provider.
ANSWER: b

certification Alcatel-Lucent   certification 4A0-100   certification 4A0-100   4A0-100   4A0-100 examen

NO.19 Kahn solved the problem of interconnecting different networks using different protocols by pioneering
a new protocol called TCP that was capable of:
A.Secure transmission of information.
B.Enforcing a constant packet size to avoid discards.
C.Allowing remote logins.
D.Providing host to host connectivity with global addressing.
ANSWER: d

Alcatel-Lucent   4A0-100 examen   4A0-100 examen   certification 4A0-100   4A0-100

NO.20 Which network was created to replace ARPANET?
A.INWG
B.ALOHANET
C.IETF
D.NSFNET
ANSWER: d

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Code d'Examen: 3I0-008

Nom d'Examen: ACI (ACI DEALING CERTIFICATE)

Questions et réponses: 320 Q&As

Le programme de formation ACI 3I0-008 offert par Pass4Test comprend les exercices et les test simulation. Vous voyez aussi les autres sites d'offrir l'outil de formation, mais c'est pas difficile à découvrir une grand écart de la qualité entre Pass4Test et les autres fournisseurs. Celui de Pass4Test est plus complet et convenable pour la préparation dans une courte terme.

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NO.1 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Voice-brokers in spot FX are remunerated with:
A.Commission paid by both parties at rates agreed beforehand
B.A fee paid by the seller
C.Bid/offer spread
D.A share of the bid/offer spread
ANSWER: a

ACI   certification 3I0-008   3I0-008 examen

NO.2 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Although The Model Code discourages the extension of forward FX contracts at their historic rates, one of
the conditions required for this is:
A.Prior management approval has been sought.
B.They are executed within six months.
C.They are extended for not more than one year.
D.All of the above.
ANSWER: a

certification ACI   3I0-008 examen   3I0-008

NO.3 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Written confirmation is a function that can be done by:
A.Any dealer as long as he/she is not a party to the trade.
B.Staff in the back-office.
C.Staff in the dealing room who are not dealing.
D.Any staff outside the dealing room.
ANSWER: b

ACI   3I0-008   certification 3I0-008   3I0-008 examen

NO.4 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
A 1-month (30-day) USCP with a face value of USD 5 million is quoted at a rate of discount of 2.31%.
How much is the paper worth?
A.USD 4,884,500.00
B.USD 4,990,375.00
C.USD 4,990.506.85
D.USD 4,990,393.49
ANSWER: b

ACI   3I0-008   certification 3I0-008   3I0-008   3I0-008

NO.5 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Four banks provide you with quotes in CHF/SEK. Which is the best price for you to buy SEK?
A.5.5825
B.5.5820
C.5.5815
D.5.5830
ANSWER: d

ACI   certification 3I0-008   3I0-008 examen   3I0-008 examen   3I0-008

NO.6 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
The 180-day GBP/USD rate is bid 62 and the 90-day GBP/USD rate is bid 29.
What is the bid rate for 120 days, assuming straight-line interpolation?
A.33
B.42
C.27
D.40
ANSWER: d

ACI examen   3I0-008 examen   3I0-008 examen   3I0-008   certification 3I0-008

NO.7 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
You have done the following deals in spot USD/JPY:
Sold USD 5.0 million at 130.60
Bought USD 3.5 million at 130.20
Bought USD 2.0 million at 130.50
Sold USD 2.0 million at 130.55
What is your net position and average rate?
A.Short USD 1.5 million at 130.46
B.Long USD 1.5 million at 130.46
C.Short USD 1.5 million at 131.60
D.Long USD 1.5 million at 131.60
ANSWER: c

ACI   3I0-008   certification 3I0-008   3I0-008

NO.8 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Making interest rate swap transactions subject to agreement on documentation:
A.Is recommended where the complications of the transaction warrant the practice.
B.Is strictly forbidden.
C.Is considered bad practice.
D.Must have senior management approval.
ANSWER: c

certification ACI   certification 3I0-008   certification 3I0-008   3I0-008

NO.9 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
What is the ISO code for platinum
A.XAU
B.XAG
C.XPT
D.XPD
ANSWER: c

ACI   certification 3I0-008   3I0-008

NO.10 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
If a counterparty's name is not acceptable to a lending bank, that bank:
A.Can revise the rate according to his credit position for the counterparty.
B.Should not revise the rate.
C.Can revise the rate but only with the consent of senior management.
D.Can revise the rate according to the credit rating of the counterparty
ANSWER: b

ACI examen   certification 3I0-008   3I0-008   3I0-008 examen

NO.11 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Lending for 3 months and borrowing for 6 months creates a 3x6 forward-forward deposit. The cost of that
deposit is called:
A.Break-even rate
B.Implied forward rate
C.Forward-forward rate
D.All of the above
ANSWER: d

certification ACI   3I0-008   3I0-008 examen   3I0-008 examen

NO.12 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
In the international market, a FRA in USD is usually settled with reference to:
A.BBA LIBOR
B.Fed funds
C.ISDA LIBOR
D.EURIBOR
ANSWER: a

ACI   3I0-008   3I0-008   3I0-008

NO.13 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Which of the following will tend to have the higher yield?
A.Treasury bill
B.Repo against Treasury bill collateral
C.They have the same yield
D.Cannot say
ANSWER: b

certification ACI   3I0-008 examen   3I0-008

NO.14 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
What are the secondary market proceeds of a CD with a face value of EUR 5 million and a coupon of 3%
that was issued at par for 182 days and is now trading at 3% but with only 7 days remaining to maturity?
A.EUR 4,997,085.03
B.EUR 5,000,000.00
C.EUR 5,071,086.45
D.EUR 5,072,874.16
ANSWER: d

ACI examen   3I0-008   certification 3I0-008

NO.15 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
It is now permissible in most markets for brokers to be owned by banks and other principals. Where there
is shared management, or a shareholding or other investment in a broker by a counterparty:
A.The broker is not obligated to reveal the connection provided Chinese Walls are in place.
B.The broker is not obligated to reveal the connection in the professional market.
C.The broker should advise the other counterparty of the connection.
D.The matter is covered in the Model Code.
ANSWER: c

ACI   3I0-008   3I0-008

NO.16 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
The position delta of an in-the-money short put option is:
A.Between -0.5 and -1
B.-0.5
C.Between +0.5 and +1
D.+0.5
ANSWER: c

certification ACI   3I0-008 examen   certification 3I0-008   3I0-008

NO.17 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
What is the Overnight Index for GBP?
A.SONIA
B.STINA
C.LIBOR
D.EONIA
ANSWER: a

ACI   3I0-008   3I0-008 examen   3I0-008 examen   3I0-008

NO.18 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
What are some of the major objectives of The Model Code?
A.To clarify the roles of dealers, brokers and customers
B.To promote a high level of ethical, professional behaviour
C.To act as a guide in the absence of government regulation
D.All of the above
ANSWER: d

ACI   3I0-008 examen   3I0-008   3I0-008   3I0-008

NO.19 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
The extension of an off-market rate could have the following implications:
A.An unauthorised extension of credit to the counterparty.
B.Deferring a loss to a future date.
C.Deferring an income to a future date.
D.All of the above.
ANSWER: d

certification ACI   certification 3I0-008   3I0-008 examen   3I0-008

NO.20 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
In case of a default on a repo by the seller:
A.The buyer can liquidate the collateral
B.The buyer has to liquidate the collateral
C.The buyer cannot liquidate the collateral until the seller is declared insolvent
D.A court is appointed to decide what happens to the collateral
ANSWER: a

ACI   certification 3I0-008   3I0-008   3I0-008 examen

NO.21 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Which of the following is issued by auction?
A.Treasury bill
B.CD
C.BA
D.USCP
ANSWER: a

ACI   3I0-008   3I0-008   certification 3I0-008

NO.22 These are all the pirctures which this dumps will use. When you meet the questions, you can refer to
them by yourself.
A
B
C
D
E
F

NO.23 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
What is the amount of the principal plus interest due at maturity on a 1-month (31-day) deposit of EUR 50
million placed at 3.67%?
A.EUR 50,152,916.70
B.EUR 50,155,849.30
C.EUR 50,158,013.90
D.EUR 50,161,888.90
ANSWER: c

certification ACI   3I0-008   certification 3I0-008   3I0-008

NO.24 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Which of the following currencies is quoted on an actual/365 basis for the calculation of interest on
interbank deposits in London?
A.EUR
B.JPY
C.GBP
D.CHF
ANSWER: c

ACI examen   3I0-008 examen   3I0-008 examen   3I0-008   certification 3I0-008

NO.25 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
The seller of a floor:
A.Receives compensation if a reference interest rate falls below an agreed level
B.Pays compensation if a reference interest rate falls below an agreed level
C.Receives compensation if a reference interest rate rises above an agreed level
D.Pays compensation if a reference interest rate rises above an agreed level
ANSWER: b

ACI   3I0-008   3I0-008   3I0-008

NO.26 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Prior to expiration, an in-the-money option has:
A.Intrinsic value but no time value
B.Time value but no intrinsic value
C.Both time value and intrinsic value
D.Neither time value nor intrinsic value
ANSWER: c

ACI   certification 3I0-008   3I0-008   certification 3I0-008

NO.27 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
If EUR/USD is 1.1025-28 and the 6-month swap is 112.50/113, what is the 6-month outright price?
A.1.1380-1.11405
B.1.11375-1.1141
C.1.09125-1.0915
D.None of these
ANSWER: b

certification ACI   3I0-008 examen   3I0-008   3I0-008   certification 3I0-008

NO.28 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Taking collateral to hedge the credit risk on a counterparty means that you have:
A.Eliminated credit risk
B.Eliminated market risk
C.Taken a guarantee from the issuer of the collateral
D.Taken on market, legal and operational risks
ANSWER: d

ACI   3I0-008   3I0-008   3I0-008

NO.29 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
Covered interest arbitrage is possible when:
A.The low interest rate currency depreciates
B.There is a large swing in the spot rate
C.The values of the forward points and of the interest rate differential between two currencies diverge
D.The interest rate differential widens rather than narrows
ANSWER: c

ACI   certification 3I0-008   3I0-008 examen

NO.30 Click on the <> Button to view the Formula Sheet.
One of your major customers is visiting your bank and wishes to meet you and see the dealing room.
What is the Model Code recommendation?
A.There is no problem.
B.There is no problem provided the visitor is a member of your customers management and not a dealer
for the customer.
C.There is no problem with a short, one-off visit approved by management.
D.Non-treasury personnel and visitors should not be allowed into the dealing room.
ANSWER: c

ACI examen   3I0-008   3I0-008

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Code d'Examen: 000-219

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Sterling Order Management V9.1, Deployment)

Questions et réponses: 104 Q&As

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NO.1 A company wants to run the schedule agent in multiple environments each having different provider
URL values for their JMS queues. However, they do not wish to modify the agent configuration on each
environment to the corresponding provider URL value. How can this be achieved?
A. Set the provider_url value in the sandbox.cfg file on each environment correctly.
B. Set the value of the yfs.agent.override.providerurl property in the jms.properties file.
C. Set the value of the yfs.agent.override.providerurl property in the servers.properties file.
D. Override the value of the yfs.yfs.agent.override.providerurl property in the
customer_overrides.properties file.
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-219   certification 000-219   certification 000-219

NO.2 A retailer wants to have different process flows for orders created online and from their stores. How
can this efficiently be achieved?
A. Create separate document types for online and store orders.
B. Configure a hub rule that will move online and store orders to different pipelines.
C. Implement the YFSVerifyOrderUE to check for the different modes of order capture.
D. Pass different values for the 'Channel' attribute in the input and distinguish the two in the
ON_SUCCESS event of createOrder API.
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-219 examen   000-219   000-219   000-219

NO.3 A customer credit card has been authorized with an authorization expiration date of September 28.
The order does not get settled before September 28 and the payment configurations are as shown below.
On which date will the IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite raise a reauthorization request?
A. September 27A.September 27
B. September 28B.September 28
C. September 29C.September 29
D. September 30D.September 30
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-219   000-219

NO.4 A service provider offers installation and haul away services for appliances and furniture. The services
are offered by two teams, each specializing in either appliances or furniture. On receiving a request for a
service, the service provider would like to use the closest team to the customer that also has the relevant
skills. How can this requirement be achieved?
A. The ship node servicing the customer's shipping address should be stamped as the "ServiceNode" on
the service order line.
B. The installation and haul away items should be modeled as service items in the catalog and Sourcing
rules for provided services should beconfigured.
C. The installation and haul away should be modeled as accessories to the main product (appliance and
furniture) so the sourcing rules for theproduct will also look for capacity for the accessories.
D. The service items should be defined in the catalog along with their association with the main product
(appliance and furniture). The sourcingrules for the product item will then automatically identify the right
ship node that can offer the service.
Answer: B

IBM   000-219   000-219 examen   000-219   certification 000-219

NO.5 Synchronous services can be invoked in the IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite through which
two components?
A. Actions
B. Conditions
C. User Exits
D. Agent Server
E. Integration Server
Answer: A,C

IBM   000-219   certification 000-219   000-219

NO.6 Due to an enterprise-wide license agreement, a company uses a database from a particular vendor. The
database to be used for development is supported per the System_Requirements_Guide.pdf. The testing,
staging, and production deployments are however going to use a different database (from a different
vendor), which is also a supported database. Which statement is true about this situation?
A. The IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite allows for the databases to be different between
development, testing, staging and productiondeployments.
B. Since the IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite uses standard JDBC to connect to the database,
questions around compatibility ofdatabases must be directed to the database vendors.
C. Even though it might work, the IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite deployment will be supported
by IBM only if the database used forproduction remains the same as the one used for development.
D. The IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite deployment contains code that is database specific;
therefore, it is not advisable to use differentdatabase providers between development and production
environments.
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-219   000-219 examen   000-219 examen

NO.7 An organization is using the Service Builder to create a service for transforming data from one format
to the other (EDI to XML). However, they are unable to do so as they encounter errors while trying to save
the service. Which two options may be responsible for this?
A. A transport node is missing.
B. A component node is missing.
C. An API component exists without System Arguments specified.
D. An API component exists without the template file name specified.
E. All required properties on all nodes and links do not have values specified.
Answer: B,E

IBM   000-219 examen   000-219   000-219   000-219

NO.8 A specific customer implementation requires IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite to create
procurement transfer orders at the time of scheduling the original order. For achieving this, sourcing rules
must be configured to use ship nodes instead of distribution rules. Which additional parameters must be
passed for the order creation?
A. The shipping node and receiving node are passed at the order line level.
B. The enterprise, buyer, and order type are passed at the order header level.
C. The shipping node, receiving node, and catalog organization are passed at the order line level.
D. The shipping node, receiving node, buyer, and enterprise are passed at the order header and line
level.
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-219   certification 000-219   certification 000-219

NO.9 Using the Exception Console of the IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite, the exceptions raised by
asynchronous services can be viewed. The developer needs the ability to view the error XML, modify it,
and process it. Which property of the Receiver Link Exception Handling properties should the developer
turn on?
A. Is Reprocessible
B. Handle Exceptions
C. Process Exceptions
D. Reprocess Exceptions
Answer: A

IBM examen   certification 000-219   000-219 examen   certification 000-219

NO.10 Payment Administration users should be able to view only payment related alerts while Node
Administrator users should be able to view all alerts. Which approach achieves this?
A. In the alert configuration in Applications Manager, under Application > Application Platform > Alert >
Exception Type appropriately define theusers who will need to view the alert.
B. In the alert configuration for Exception Type Role in Applications Manager, under Application >
Application Platform > Alert > Exception TypeRole appropriately define the users who will need to view
the alert.
C. In the alert queue configuration in Applications Manager, under Application > Application Platform >
Queue Management add the userscorresponding to the Payment Administration and Node Administrator
users appropriately to the correct queues.
D. In the alert queue configuration in Applications Manager, under Application > Application Platform >
Queue Management add the user groupscorresponding to the Payment Administration and Node
Administrator users appropriately to the correct queues.
Answer: C

IBM   000-219   certification 000-219   000-219

NO.11 Which two segment types are provided in IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite?
A. Made to fulfill
B. Made to order
C. Made to stock
D. Made to demand
E. Made to customer
Answer: B,E

certification IBM   000-219 examen   000-219

NO.12 While installing the IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite in the GUI mode, the installation fails with
an error indicating a user permission issue on the database schema. On researching the issue, it is
discovered that the user has not been granted "CREATE TABLE" permission on the schema. The
database administrator who can provide access is not accessible until the end of the week. Which
statement is true regarding the application installation procedure.?
A. The installation has to be rerun from the beginning after the permission has been granted to the user.
B. The IBM Sterling Selling and Fulfillment Suite should be re-installed with the option to use the database
bundled along with it.
C. The installation can be run in a mode such that it does not connect to the database and the database
scripts can be run later when thepermission issue is resolved.
D. Since the issue is only a permissions issue, the installation can be run with a parameter in the silent file
so it would ignore such errors andcomplete the installation successfully.
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-219   000-219 examen

NO.13 A retailer needs different types of items to be associated with their corresponding provided services. For
example, all the televisions need to be associated with an installation service, whereas microwaves need
to be associated with a product demo service. What should be created to help achieve this?
A. Create an asset for the item contains the associated service.
B. Create an item classification with the purpose set asservice Association
C. Create item attributes for each item type with purpose set asservice Association
D. Create item categories for each item type with purpose set asservice Association
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-219   000-219 examen   000-219

NO.14 A buyer in the supply chain network requires certain compliance services (such as adding an RFID
label) to be performed for certain items. Which statement is true about the fulfillment process for this item?
A. Compliance services can be performed for only bundle items.
B. Compliance services can be configured at item level for each buyer.
C. Compliance services can be configured at the enterprise, buyer, and item level.
D. Compliance services can be configured for a buyer at the item classification level.
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-219   000-219 examen   000-219   000-219 examen

NO.15 A customer places an order of amount $100. As per their business rules, if the payment method is credit
card the retailer has to authorize the credit card by contacting the payment gateway for the complete
order amount before the order can be scheduled. Which execution step needs to be completed for the
payments on the order to be authorized and the details stored against the order?
A. The managePaymentTerms API needs to be invoked with the appropriate order and payment
information in the input.
B. The executePaymentTransactions API needs to be invoked with the appropriate order and payment
information in the input.
C. The Payment Collection, Payment Execution and Payment Collection transactions should be executed
in that sequence for the order.
D. The payment status on the order has to be manually changed to UTHORIZED?from the Sterling Selling
and Fulfillment Foundation console.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 000-178

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.2, BPM Development)

Questions et réponses: 49 Q&As

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NO.1 A developer requires a service to query a database. The database does not have any restrictions on
user/system permissions or on the operations allowed to be performed by users/systems. Which of the
following operations can the developer perform on the database with the SQL Execute Statement
service?
A. Read, write and update
B. Read only, not write or update
C. Read only, not write or update, and binary large objects (BLOB) data types cannot be read
D. Read, write and update, but binary large objects (BLOB) data types cannot be read, written, or updated
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-178 examen   000-178   000-178

NO.2 A developer builds an integration service using a Java Integration Component, and wants the result of
the Java method that is invoked to be serialized and returned to the Integration service as an XML
element. What must the developer do to ensure this.?
A. Enable the Translate JavaBeans check box.
B. Nest the Integration service in another service.
C. Choose the method that you want to call on the class.
D. Click the Variables tab for the Integration service to add any input variables.
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-178   certification 000-178   000-178 examen   000-178 examen

NO.3 A developer implements the following service:
What does the developer find after the service attempts to handle the exception if the Special Handler
script fails?
A. The service is terminated.
B. The script is executed repeatedly until the error is resolved.
C. The service throws the exception to be caught by a higher level service or process.
D. An exception is caught and processed within the current activity and then the service terminates.
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-178   000-178   000-178

NO.4 A developer needs to use the static custom Java API that was developed by another development team.
The developer needs to use that custom API directly in the Lombardi process application and toolkits.
Which one of the following connectors must the developer use to fulfill the above requirement?
A. API Connector
B. HTTP Connector
C. Java Connector
D. SOAP Connector
Answer: C

IBM   000-178 examen   000-178   certification 000-178   000-178

NO.5 A developer is integrating WebSphere Lombardi Edition with an external system using a SOAP
connector. What language should the developer use in the SOAP request for the integration to function
properly?
A. XML
B. XSLT
C. HTML
D. XHTML
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 000-M224

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Initiate Master Data Service Sales Mastery v1)

Questions et réponses: 39 Q&As

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NO.1 What is used to determine the price of an IBM Initiate solution?
A. number of records managed
B. number of user licenses
C. number of CPUs
D. number of employees in the organization
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-M224   certification 000-M224   000-M224 examen

NO.2 What is NOT one of the reasons for the IBM acquisition of Initiate.?
A. consolidation
B. growth
C. investment
D. integration
Answer: A

IBM   000-M224   000-M224   000-M224 examen   000-M224 examen

NO.3 What is NOT a strategic value of an Enterprise Master Person Index (EMPI) solution?
A. increase profitability
B. maintain provider registry
C. ensure regulatory compliance
D. improve quality of patient care
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-M224   certification 000-M224   000-M224

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Code d'Examen: 00M-645

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cognos Business Intelligence Sales Mastery Test v2)

Questions et réponses: 45 Q&As

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NO.1 What is NOT a major advantage that IBM Cognos BI products have over the competition?
A. Promotion of self-service.
B. Ability to consume information in a variety of formats, languages, and devices.
C. Consistency and accessibility from a wide range of data sources across the entire organization.
D. Ability to build and automate business processes.
Answer: D

IBM   00M-645 examen   00M-645 examen   00M-645

NO.2 Which major differentiator did version 10 introduce to the IBM Cognos BI interface.?
A. Separate workspaces for distinct roles.
B. Unified workspace for all users.
C. Mobile support for all functionality.
D. Ad hoc reporting capabilities.
Answer: B

IBM examen   00M-645   certification 00M-645   00M-645

NO.3 What is a high-yield question when positioning IBM Cognos BI to the CIO of an organization?
A. Do your users trust the data that they have access to?
B. How do you identify outliers in your business?
C. How do you handle information requests from the business?
D. What happens when management is not able to get information they need quickly?
Answer: D

IBM   certification 00M-645   00M-645   00M-645 examen   00M-645

NO.4 According to studies by IBM and Gartner, what do CIOs list as their number one concern?
A. Compliance
B. Business analytics
C. Mobility solutions
D. Risk management
Answer: B

IBM   00M-645   00M-645   00M-645   certification 00M-645

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Code d'Examen: 000-957

Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM XIV Storage System Technical Solutions V3)

Questions et réponses: 195 Q&As

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NO.1 What two recommendations are considered best practice when using an XIV system with VMware
ESX4.1? (Select two)
A. Use larger LUNs instead of LVM extents.
B. Always ensure Async mirroring is employed.
C. Always use the fixed path routing selection.
D. Always use round-robin path routing selection.
E. Always use the latest manufacturer's HBA drivers with the VMware OS
Answer: A,D

certification IBM   000-957 examen   000-957 examen

NO.2 What are two benefits of the XIV system's storage virtualization architecture? (Select two)
A. Hardware redundancy
B. Dynamic rate adaption
C. Online data migration
D. Preserves server connectivity
E. Differential snapshot capability
Answer: C,E

certification IBM   000-957 examen   000-957 examen   certification 000-957   certification 000-957

NO.3 Compared to other IBM storage offerings, which of the following is unique functionality on an XIV
system?
A. automated load balancing
B. eliminates storage tiering
C. support for remote monitoring
D. easy-to-use graphical user interface
Answer: B

IBM   000-957   000-957   000-957 examen   000-957 examen   000-957

NO.4 A customer wants to use an XIV system to replace legacy storage for a Microsoft Exchange
environment, and is concerned about backup windows.
Which option would solve this concern?
A. Consistency groups and full volume copies
B. XIV snapshot technology and FlashCopy Manager
C. XIV snapshot technology with iSCSI replication
D. Utilize Quality of Service performance classes
Answer: B

IBM   000-957   000-957   000-957

NO.5 In an XIV system Gen3, what is the maximum number of inactive modules with Capacity on Demand
(CoD) enabled?
A. 6
B. 9
C. 3
D. 7
Answer: C

certification IBM   certification 000-957   certification 000-957   000-957 examen   000-957

NO.6 On an XIV system, what is an effect on the volumes within a storage pool with default settings when
the hard capacity limit is reached?
A. All volumes within the pool immediately go offline
B. All volumes within the pool enter the Read Only state
C. The space reclamation process automatically expands the pool
D. Hard capacity is automatically allocated from alternative pools
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-957   000-957

NO.7 A technical specialist needs the IBM approved checklist to provide an IBM Technical Delivery
Assessment (TDA). Where is this checklist located?
A. IBM Techline
B. Solution Assurance Library
C. In the box of the new equipment
D. It is provided when the unit is registered
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-957 examen   000-957   certification 000-957

NO.8 Which XIV system feature enables proactive notification to the IBM service center?
A. Call Home
B. SNMP traps
C. Remote Support
D. XIV Remote Service Center
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-957 examen   000-957 examen   000-957

NO.9 What is required to manage an XIV system Gen3 with IBM Systems Director?
A. VAAI
B. Host Attachment Kit
C. MIB file for the XIV
D. Embedded CIMOM for the XIV
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-957   000-957 examen   000-957 examen

NO.10 A customer has 40 hosts, each with a 1 TB data volume. All hosts are less than 20% utilized. As part of
an XIV consolidation, all host data volumes will be copied using a standard file copy tool.
In order to ensure data integrity, how much hard capacity should be allocated on the XIV system?
A. 8 TB
B. 16 TB
C. 32 TB
D. 40 TB
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-957   certification 000-957   certification 000-957   000-957

NO.11 For an XIV system, what is the recommended location for cooling tiles?
A. 1 tile in front of the system
B. 2 tiles directly beneath the system
C. 2 tiles directly in front of the system
D. 1 tile at the front and 1 at the rear of the system
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-957   000-957 examen   000-957   certification 000-957   000-957

NO.12 What is the benefit of the IBM XIV Storage Management Console for the VMware vCenter plug-in?
A. integrates XIV volume allocation to VMware datastores
B. integrates VMware datastore creation into the XIV GUI
C. automates VMware datastore failover between XIV systems
D. enables the VMware vCenter console to manage XIV replication
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-957   000-957   000-957   certification 000-957

NO.13 Referring to the exhibit, what action must the administrator take to address the storage event on the
HR Portal storage group?
A. Resize volumes
B. Remove snapshots
C. Increase hard limit
D. Increase soft limit
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-957   000-957

NO.14 What is the standard warranty period for an XIV system Gen3 2812-114?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years
Answer: C

IBM   000-957   000-957   000-957

NO.15 Which features best match the XIV system's hardware benefits?
A. Automatic tiering and scalability
B. Massive parallelism and scalability
C. Scalability and RAID implementation
D. Massive parallelism and hot spot management
Answer: B

IBM   000-957   000-957 examen

NO.16 How many more iSCSI ports does a 10 module XIV system Gen3 Model 114 have than a 10 module
XIV system Model A14?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 16
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-957   certification 000-957   000-957

NO.17 Which sophisticated method distributes data on all drives in an XIV system?
A. Pseudo-random algorithm
B. Non-linear data algorithm
C. Pattern of non-random blocks
D. Sequential distribution of data
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-957   000-957   000-957

NO.18 On an XIV system, how can the servers with the heaviest I/O in real time be identified?
A. XIV Top
B. state_list
C. host_list/s io
D. Statistics in the XIV GUI
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-957 examen   000-957   000-957   000-957

NO.19 Which of the following is a TRUE statement about XIV snapshots?
A. XIV snapshots utilize a copy-on-write design.
B. XIV snapshots copy data to create a snapshot.
C. XIV snapshots utilize a redirect-on-write design.
D. A maximum of 8000 snapshots can be created concurrently.
Answer: C

IBM   000-957 examen   000-957

NO.20 Using the exhibit as a reference, what are the two reasons the delete option cannot be selected for the
UDB storage pool? (Select two)
A. The pool contains volumes
B. The storage pool is locked
C. The pool contains snapshots
D. The storage pool is mapped to a cluster
E. The administrator has default privileges
Answer: A,C

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